Question Booklet No. : DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO bl iqflrdk dks vkns'k feyus ij gh [kksysa MINING SIRDAR

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1 Question Booklet Series : ç'u iqflrdk J`a[kyk %& A Question Booklet No. : ç'u iqflrdk la[;k %& DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO bl iqflrdk dks vkns'k feyus ij gh [kksysa MINING SIRDAR Time Allowed : 2 Hours Total No. of Questions : 100 Roll No. / vuqøekad la[;k :... OMR Sheet No. if=dk la[;k :... Name of the Candidate / vh;fkê dk uke : Candidate's Signature / vh;fkê ds glrk{kj Invigilator's Signature / d{k fujh{kd ds glrk{kj READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY BEFORE WRITING ANYTHING ON THIS BOOKLET 1. Before commencing to answer, check that the Question Booklet has all the 100 questions (PART A : 25 Questions on General Awareness and PART B : 75 questions from concerned Discipline/Technical Aptitude and there is no misprinting, overprinting and/or any other shortcoming in it. If there is any shortcoming, intimate the same to your room invigilator and have it changed. No complaint in this regard shall be entertained at any later stage. 2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for all your work on the OMR Answer Sheet. The ovals on the OMR Answer Sheet are to be completely filled by Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only. ANSWERS ONCE GIVEN CAN NOT BE CHANGED. 3. This is an objective type test in which each objective question is followed by four responses serialled (1) to (4). Your task is to choose the correct/best response and mark your response in the OMR Answer Sheet and NOT in the Question Booklet. 4. All questions are compulsory. 5. DO NOT scribble or do rough work or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. DO NOT wrinkle or fold or staple it. 6. Answer sheet will be processed by Electronic means. Hence, invalidation of answer sheet resulting due to folding or putting stray marks on it or any damage to the answer sheet as well as incomplete/incorrect filling of the answer sheet will be the sole responsibility of the candidate. 7. Rough Work is to be done in any blank space in the booklet. No other paper will be allowed/provided. 8. Use of Calculators, Slide rules, Mobiles, calculator watches or any such devices and any other study/reference material is NOT allowed inside the examination hall. 9. Return OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator on completion of the test. Do not take this OMR Answer Sheet outside the examination room. Doing so is a punishable offence. You can retain the Question Paper after the test is over. 10. Take care that you mark only one answer for each question. If more than one answer is given by you for any question, the same will not be evaluated. Cutting/overwriting the answers are not allowed. Further question paper is bilingual (Hindi/English). In case of any variation in Hindi version, English version will be taken as final for evaluation purposes. FOR INSTRUCTIONS IN HINDI SEE BACK COVER PAGE.

2 PART A (GENERAL AWARENESS) 1. What is union government s UDAY scheme? (1) Scheme for financial restructuring of debt of power distribution companies (2) Scheme of voluntary disclosure of undisclosed income as announced in recent budget (3) Scheme of housing for poors. (4) Scheme of NPA s waiver of public sector banks 2. Identify the odd one on the basis of games: (1) Jwala Gutta (2) P.V. Sindhu (3) Vinesh Phogat (4) Saina Nehwal 3. Tipu Sultan was ruler of: (1) Hyderabad (2) Madurai (3) Mysore (4) Vijaiwada 4. The three fundamental quantities are: (1) Mass, length, time (2) Momentum, force, volume (3) Mass, force, time (4) Mass, pressure, height 5. How many States are there in the Union of India: (1) 25 (2) 28 (3) 22 (4) Pentagon is in: (1) Washinton (2) New York (3) Mexico City (4) Alabama 7. Which is not a slogan given by Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose: (1) Jai Hind (2) Jai Jawan Jai Kisan (3) Dilli Chalo (4) Give me Blood, I will give you freedom 8. Aryaman and Atulya were recently commissioned in Kochi, Kerala. These are: (1) Atomic Research Centre (2) Nuclear Power Station (3) Indian Coast Guard Ships (4) Largest Solar Power station 1. la?k ljdkj dh UDAY ;kstuk D;k gs\ (1) fctyh forj.k deifu;ksa ds _.k dh foùkh; iquzlajpuk gsrw,d ;kstuk (2) gky gh esa?kks k.kk fd;s x, ctv esa xsj&?kksf kr vk;ksa dh LoSfPNd?kks k.kk dh ;kstuk (3) xjhcksa ds fy;s x`g ;kstuk (4) lkoztfud {ks= ds csdksa ds fy;s xsj&fu iknu djus okyh leifùk;k dks ekq djus dh ;kstuk 2. [ksyksa ds vk/kkj ij fo ke dks igpkusa% (1) Tokyk xqêk (2) ih-oh- flu/kw (3) fous k QksxV (4) lk;uk usgoky 3. Vhiw lqyrku fdldk kkld Fkk% (1) gsnjkckn (2) enqjkbz (3) eslwj (4) fot;okm+k 4. rhu eksfyd ifjek.k gs% (1) iq t] yeckbz] le; (2) laosx] cy] vk;ru (3) iq t] cy] le; (4) iq t] nkc] Å pkbz 5. Hkkjr la?k esa fdrus jkt; gsa% (1) 25 (2) 28 (3) 22 (4) ^isavkxu* dgk gs% (1) okf kaxvu (2) U;w;kdZ (3) esfdldks flvh (4) vyckek 7. usrkth lqhkk kpuæ cksl us fueufyf[kr esa ls dksu lk ukjk ugha fn;k gs% (1) t; fgun (2) t; toku t; fdlku (3) fnyyh pyks (4) rqe eq>s [kwu nks esa rqegs vktknh nw xk 8. ^vk;zeu,oa vrqy;* vhkh gky gh esa dksfpp] dsjy esa pkyw fd;k x;ka ;s gs% (1) ijek.kq vuqla/kku dsuæ (2) U;wfDy;j kfä LVs ku (3) Hkkjrh; dkslv xkmz f ki (4) lokzf/kd cm+k lks;z kfä LVs ku 30APX7 [ A 1]

3 9. MRTS stands for: (1) Mass Rapid Transport System (2) Mass Rapid Transit System (3) Most Rapid Train Service (4) Mass Rail Transport System KB memory is: (1) 1000 bytes (2) 2 10 bytes (3) 10 6 bytes (4) 10 2 bytes 11. Who is the deputy chairman of Rajya Sabha at present? (1) Satya Narain Jatiya (2) Tiruchi Siva (3) Prof. P.J. Kurien (4) None of these 12. Which country s team has lost 2016 Women s Twenty- 20 Asia Cup Cricket Tournament: (1) Pakistan (2) India (3) Bangladesh (4) Nepal 13. PAVA shells stands for? (1) Pellet Attack Vamide Amide (2) Parrallel attack Via Amide (3) Priority Acid Via Amide (4) Pelargonic Acid Vanillyl Amide 14. A stick immersed in water appears bent due to the phenomenon of: (1) Reflection of light (2) Diffraction of light (3) Refraction of light (4) Dispersion of light 15. In which of the following groups of hemispheres is India located? (1) Northern & Eastern Hemisphere (2) Eastern & western Hemisphere (3) Southern & Northern Hemisphere (4) Eastern & Southern Hemisphere 16. The Governor of a state is appointed by: (1) Chief Minister of the State (2) Chief Justice of Supreme Court (3) President of India (4) Speaker of the Lok Sabha 17. The earth rotates on its axis from: (1) West to East (2) East to West (3) South to North (4) North to South 9. MRTS dk o`gn Lo:i gs% (1) ekl jsfim VªkUliksVZ fllve (2) ekl jsfim VªkfUtV fllve (3) ekslv jsfim Vªsu lfozl (4) ekl jsy VªkUliksVZ fllve KB Le`fr gksrh gs% (1) 1000 ckbzv~l (2) 2 10 ckbzv~l (3) 10 6 ckbzv~l (4) 10 2 ckbzv~l 11. orzeku esa jkt;&lhkk dk mi&lhkkifr dksu gs\ (1) lr; ukjk;u tkfv;k (2) fr:fp f kok (3) çks- ih-ts- dqfj;u (4) buesa ls dksbz ugha 12. fdl ns k dh Vhe 2016 efgyk VhosUVh&20,f k;k di fødsv esa gkjh% (1) ikfdlrku (2) Hkkjr (3) ckaxykns k (4) usiky 13. PAVA lsyl dk rkri;z gs% (1) Pellet Attack Vamide Amide (2) Parrallel attack Via Amide (3) Priority Acid Via Amide (4) Pelargonic Acid Vanillyl Amide 14. ikuh esa MwcksbZ,d NM+h fdl lao`fr ds dkj.k eqm+h gqbz çrhr gksrh gs% (1) çdk k dk ijkorzu (2) çdk k dk foorzu (3) çdk k dk viorzu (4) çdk k dk çdh.kz 15. xksyk/kz ds fdl leqnk; esa Hkkjr flfkr gs% (1) mùkjh,oa iwoê xksyk/kz (2) iwoê,oa if peh xksyk/kz (3) nf{k.kh,oa mùkjh xksyk/kz (4) iwoê,oa nf{k.kh xksyk/kz 16. jkt; dk jkt;iky fdlds }kjk fu;qä fd;k tkrk gs% (1) jkt; ds eq[;ea=h (2) lokszpp U;k;ky; dk tt (3) Hkkjr ds jk Vªifr (4) yksd&lhkk dk lhkkifr 17. i`foh viuh /kwjh ij?kwerh gs% (1) if pe ls iwjc (2) iwjc ls if pe (3) nf{k.k ls mùkj (4) mùkj ls nf{k.k 30APX7 [ A 2]

4 18. Name the following who is not associated with cricket: (1) Sachin Tendulkar (2) Sunil Gavaskar (3) Sania Mirza (4) Kapil Dev 19. Newton's 1 st law of motion is also known as: (1) Law of acceleration (2) Law of speed (3) Law of gravity (4) Law of inertia 20. The Khajuraho temples were built by: (1) Chalukyas (2) Chauhans (3) Chandellas (4) None of these 21. The first battle of Tarain was fought between: (1) Mohammad Ghori and Prithvi Raj Chauhan (2) Akbar and Hemu (3) Mahmud of Ghazni and Prithvi Raj Chauhan (4) Akbar and Rana Pratap 22. The President of India shall hold office for a term of: (1) Five years from the date on which he is declared elected (2) Five years from the date on which he takes oath of his office (3) Five years from the date on which he enters upon his office (4) Five years from the date on which he addresses the Lok Sabha 23. For anyone to become a member of Rajya Sabha, he/she must be at least: (1) 35 years of age (2) 30 years of age (3) of the age what is minimum age required for Vice President of India (4) 25 years of age 24. Babar defeated Rana Sanga in the battle of: (1) Panipat (2) Khanva (3) Buxar (4) Chittor 25. How many bones are there in human body? (1) 201 (2) 203 (3) 210 (4) fueufyf[kr esa ls,d uke crk,a tks fødsv ls lecfu/kr ugha gs% (1) lfpu rsunqydj (2) lquhy xkoldj (3) lkfu;k fetkz (4) dfiy nso 19. U;wVu dk xfr ds çfke fu;e dk nwljk uke gs% (1) Roj.k dk fu;e (2) pky dk fu;e (3) xq:ro dk fu;e (4) tm+ro dk fu;e 20. [ktqjkgks dk efunj fdlds }kjk fuekz.k djok;k x;k% (1) pkyqd; (2) pksgku (3) punsy (4) buesa ls dksbz ugha 21. rjkbz dk çfke ;q) fdlds e/; gqvk% (1) eksgeen xksjh,oa i`foh jkt pksgku (2) vdcj,oa gsew (3) egewn xtuoh,oa i`foh jkt pksgku (4) vdcj,oa jk.kk çrki 22. Hkkjr ds jk Vªifr ds dk;kzy; dk dk;zdky gksxk% (1) muds fuokzfpr gksus dh?kks k.kk frffk ls ik p o kz (2) muds vius dk;kzy; ds fy, kifk xzg.k djus dh frffk ls ik p o kz (3) muds vius dk;kzy; ds dk;z&hkkj lahkkyus dh frffk ls ik p o kz (4) muds yksd&lhkk ds lecksf/kr djus dh frffk ls ik p o kz 23. jkt;&lhkk dk lnl; cuus ds fy;s U;wure vk;q gksuh pkfg,% (1) 35 o kz dh vk;q (2) 30 o kz dh vk;q (3) U;wure vk;q tks Hkkjr ds mi&jk Vªifr ds fy;s okafpnr gs (4) 25 o kz dh vk;q 24. fdl ;q) esa ckcj us jk.kk lkaxk dks gjk;k Fkk% (1) ikuhir (2) [kkuok (3) cdlj (4) fpùkksm+ 25. ekuo kjhj esa fdruh gfì;k gksrh gsa\ (1) 201 (2) 203 (3) 210 (4) APX7 [ A 3]

5 PART B (PROFESSIONAL APTITUDE) 26. Which of the following apparatus is suitable for drilling while approaching water logged underground working (1) Auger Drill (2) Hand held electric drill (3) Burn side boring machine (4) None of these 27. The method of joining rope is known as (1) Rope stitching (2) Rope vulcanizing (3) Rope stretching (4) Rope splicing 28. P-5 explosives are used for: (1) Pre-cut blasting (2) Open cast blasting (3) Over burden blasting (4) Solid blasting 29. Who is authorized to designate the Workmen Inspector in consultation with the registered trade union in the mine? (1) DGMS (2) Mines Foreman (3) Owner/Agent (4) Mines Manager 30. What percentage of roof bolts is tested for destructive test to know the efficacy of support (1) 10% (2) 5% (3) 1% (4) 8% 31. Extraction of coal by method other than Bord & Pillar method has been stipulated in (1) CMR 100 (2) CMR 100 A (3) CMR 103 (4) CMR 103 A 32. The optimum gradient of a haul road for better safety is: (1) 1 degree to 4 degree (2) 5 degree to 9 degree (3) 10 degree to 19 degree (4) Greater than 20 degree 33. Factor of safety for winding rope is: (1) 10 (2) 15 (3) 5 (4) tyexu Hkwfexr dk;z ij tkrs le; os?ku ds fy, fueu esa ls dksu&lk midj.k mi;qdr gs\ (1) vkxj os/kd (2) glr/kkfjr os qr os/kd (3) cuzlkbm os/ku e khu (4) buesa ls dksbz ugha 27. jllh dks tksm+us dh fof/k dgykrh gs% (1) jllh flykbz (2) jllh oyduhdj.k (3) jllh ruu (4) jllh leca/ku 28. P-5 folqksvksa dk iz;ksx fueu ds fy, fd;k tkrk gs% (1) dkv&iwoz folqksvu (2) foo`r [kku folqksvu (3) mifjhkkj folqksvu (4) Bksl folqksvu 29. [kku esa iathd`r Jfed la?k ds ijke kz ls dkexkj fujh{kd dks inukfer djus ds fy, dksu vf/kd`r gs\ (1) Mhth,e,l (2) [kku QksjeSu (3) ekfyd@,tsav (4) [kku izca/kd 30. Vsd dh {kerk irk yxkus ds fy, fouk kkred ijh{k.k ds oklrs Nr dkcyksa ds fdruh izfr kr dh tkap dh tkrh gs\ (1) 10% (2) 5% (3) 1% (4) 8% 31. cksmz rfkk fiyyj fof/k ls brj fof/k ls dks;ys dk d kz.k fueu esa vuqc) gs% (1) CMR 100 (2) CMR 100 A (3) CMR 103 (4) CMR 103 A 32. csgrj lqj{kk dh n`f V ls <qykbz lm+d dk b Vre <ky gksrk gs% (1) 1 fmxzh ls 4 fmxzh rd (2) 5 fmxzh ls 9 fmxzh rd (3) 10 fmxzh ls 19 fmxzh rd (4) 20 fmxzh ls vf/kd 33. folihz jllh ds fy, lqj{kk dkjd gksrk gs% (1) 10 (2) 15 (3) 5 (4) APX7 [ A 4]

6 34. Minimum length of cogging sleeper that is used as a member of cog is (1) 1.2 m (2) 1.5 m (3) 1 m (4) 1.6 m 35. Which of the following support should be used for freshly exposed roof area of development working (1) Square set chock (2) Timber prop (3) Triangular chock (4) Full column grouted roof bolts 36. Which of the following method is adopted to break the methane layering: (1) Increased air velocity (2) Venturi blower (3) Methane probe (4) Water spraying 37. As per CMR, the minimum number of inspection to be done by in respect of all road ways and other working places at which person are engaged and required to access is: (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) No such stipulation 38. In underground mines air should not contain O2 less than (1) 18% (2) 17% (3) 19% (4) 20% 39. When stemming is insufficient, then there is a chance of (1) Excessive Vibration (2) Over breakage of coal (3) High provider factor (4) Blown out shots 40. What drilling pattern is preferred in underground mine (1) Wage cut (2) Fan cut (3) Drag cut (4) Cormorant cut 41. Which of the following haulage require two parallel tracks side by side? (1) Tugger haulage (2) Direct rope haulage (3) Endless haulage (4) Tail rope haulage 34. dkxu flyij ftldk iz;ksx dkx ds,d lnl; ds :i esa fd;k tkrk gs] mldh U;wure yackbz gksrh gs% (1) 1.2 ehvj (2) 1.5 ehvj (3) 1 ehvj (4) 1.6 ehvj 35. fodklkred dk;z ds gky gh esa vukofjr Nr {ks= ds fy, fueu esa ls dksu&lh Vsd dk iz;ksx fd;k tkuk pkfg,% (1) Ldos;j lsv pksd (2) ydm+h dh Vsd (3) f=dks.kh pksd (4) iw.kz dkye vfhkiwfjr Nr dkcys 36. esfksu dh ijr dks rksm+us ds fy, fueu esa ls dksu&lh fof/k viukbz tkrh gs\ (1) of/kzr ok;q osx (2) osuvqjh Cyksvj (3) esfksu vuos kh ykdk (4) ty fnm+dko 37. CMR ds vuqlkj [kuu ljnkj }kjk lhkh lm+d ekxksza rfkk,sls vu; dk;zlfkyksa ds] tgka yksx jkstxkj ij yxs gsa vksj ftudk igqapuk t:jh gs] fd, tkus okys fujh{k.kksa dh U;wure la[;k gs% (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4),slk dksbz vuqca/k ugha gs 38. Hkwfexr [kkuksa dh ok;q esa fueu ls de O2 ugha gksuh pkfg,% (1) 18% (2) 17% (3) 19% (4) 20% 39. tc LVseu vi;kzir gks rks fueu lahkkouk gks tkrh gs% (1) vr;f/kd daiu (2) dks;ys dh vf/kd VwV&QwV (3) mpp lahkjd (4) vfr vkosf kr kkwv 40. Hkwfexr [kku esa dksu&ls Nsnu izfr:i dks ojh;rk nh tkrh gs\ (1) ost dv (2) QSu dv (3) MªSx dv (4) dkekszjsav dv 41. fueu esa ls dksu&lh <qykbz esa ikl&ikl nks lekukarj ekxz t:jh gksrs gsa% (1) Vxj <qykbz (2) izr;{k jllh <qykbz (3) vuar <qykbz (4) iqpn jttq <qykbz 30APX7 [ A 5]

7 42. As per mining regulations, for every shaft exceeding 100m depth and during hoisting of men the speed should not exceed: (1) 0.5 m/s (2) 1 m/s (3) 1.5 m/s (4) 5 m/s 43. Which type of ventilation is required for hot and deep mines (1) Ascen simal (2) Descen Simal (3) Any of the two (4) Both 44. What is the maximum suitable haulage distance for SDL to give best performance: (1) Upto 25 m of haul length (2) Upto 50 m of haul length (3) Upto75 m of haul length (4) Upto 100 m of haul length 45. Optimum rate of stone dusting in underground coal mines is: (1) 1 kg/tons of coal produced (2) 2.5 kg/ton of coal produced (3) 5 kg/tons of coal produced (4) 10 kg/ ton of coal produced 46. A mining sirdar will not perform the duties of shot firer when the number of persons working under his charge is underground will be (1) 50 or more (2) 30 or more (3) 25 or more (4) 20 or more 47. A clearance between drill hole and explosive cartridge should be at least (1) 0.3 cm (2) 0.2 cm (3) 3 cm (4) 0.5 cm 48. A seam is worked at a depth of 70 m from surface and the width of the galleries is 3.2 m then the dimension of the pillar as per CMR will be: (1) 16.5 m (2) 15.0 m (3) 19.5 m (4) 13.5 m 49. Why is it mandatory to remove silt from the sump? (1) To maintain regular flow of water in mines (2) To maximize the sump capacity (3) To maximize the heat of water (4) To allow pump khalasi to enter 42. [kuu fofu;eksa ds vuqlkj 100 ehvj ls vf/kd xgjh izr;sd kk V ds fy, rfkk yksxksa dks Åij mbkus ds nksjku] xfr fueu ls vf/kd ugha gksuh pkfg,% (1) 0.5 ehvj@lsdam (2) 1 ehvj@lsdam (3) 1.5 ehvj@lsdam (4) 5 ehvj@lsdam 43. rir vksj xgjh [kkuksa ds fy, fdl izdkj dk laokru pkfg, gksrk gs\ (1),slsu fley (2) Mh lsu fley (3) nksuksa esa ls dksbz,d (4) nksuksa 44.,lMh,y }kjk lokszrre fu iknu nsus ds fy, vf/kdre mi;qdr d kz.k nwjh fdruh gksuh pkfg,\ (1) d kz.k nwjh ds 25 ehvj rd (2) d kz.k nwjh ds 50 ehvj rd (3) d kz.k nwjh ds 75 ehvj rd (4) d kz.k nwjh ds 100 ehvj rd 45. Hkwfexr dks;yk [kkuksa esa irfkj dk cqjknk cuus dh b Vre nj gs% (1) mrikfnr dks;ys dk 1 fdyksxzke@vu (2) mrikfnr dks;ys dk 2.5 fdyksxzke@vu (3) mrikfnr dks;ys dk 5 fdyksxzke@vu (4) mrikfnr dks;ys dk 10 fdyksxzke@vu 46. [kuu ljnkj folqksvdkjh ds drzo;ksa dk fuokzg ugha djsxk tc mlds izdkj ds v/khu dk;zjr O;fDr;ksa dh la[;k gksxh% (1) 50 ;k blls vf/kd (2) 30 ;k blls vf/kd (3) 25 ;k blls vf/kd (4) 20 ;k blls vf/kd 47. os?ku fnnz vksj folqksvh dkfvzt ds chp dk varjky de ls de gksuk pkfg,% (1) 0.3 lsavhehvj (2) 0.2 lsavhehvj (3) 3 lsavhehvj (4) 0.5 lsavhehvj 48.,d lhou dk lrg ls 70 ehvj xgjkbz ij [kuu fd;k tkrk gs rfkk xsyfj;ksa dh pksm+kbz 3.2 ehvj gs],slh flfkfr esa lh,evkj ds vuqlkj LrEHk dh foek gksxh% (1) 16.5 ehvj (2) 15.0 ehvj (3) 19.5 ehvj (4) 13.5 ehvj 49. lei esa ls xkn gvk;k tkuk D;ksa t:jh gs\ (1) [kkuksa esa ikuh dk fu;fer izokg cuk, j[kuk (2) lei {kerk vf/kdre cukuk (3) ikuh dh Å ek vf/kdre cukuk (4) iei [kyklh dks?kqlus nsuk 30APX7 [ A 6]

8 50. The length of lid used over the prop during setting of support in underground mine should be not less than (1) 50cm (2) 20cm (3) 40cm (4) 30cm 51. Regarding support of the underground working which of the following is framed by the Mine Manager (1) RMR (2) SSR (3) RQD (4) R&D 52. As per CMR 1957, what should be the minimum average monthly output of an underground mine, where the safety officer must have first class Manager s certificate? (1) 5000 t (2) t (3) t (4) t 53. The diameter of winding drum shall not be less than A times the diameter of rope. Where A is given by: (1) 50 (2) 75 (3) 100 (4) At what interval the mining sirdar shall inspect the roadways leading from the district to the surface and not used for travelling (1) Once at least in 15 days (2) Once at least in 5 days (3) Once at least in 7 days (4) Once at least in 30 days 55. The length of wooden cogging sleepers used in underground mines should not be less than (1) 90cm (2) 0.95m (3) 1.2m (4) 1m 56. VOD is associated with: (1) Dewatering (2) Drilling (3) Coal cutting machine (4) Explosive 57. Which of the following excavator is preferred to be used for a bench height of 20 m to 30 m in soft rock formation? (1) Dragline (2) Shovel (3) Bucket wheel excavator (4) Payloader 50. Hkwfexr [kku esa voyec LFkkfir djus ds nksjku Vsd ds Åij iz;qdr <Ddu dh yackbz fueu ls de ugha gksuh pkfg,% (1) 50 lsavhehvj (2) 20 lsavhehvj (3) 40 lsavhehvj (4) 30 lsavhehvj 51. Hkwfexr dk;zdj.k ds lg;ksx ds fy, [kku izca/kd }kjk fueu esa ls fdldh LFkkiuk dh tkrh gs\ (1) RMR (2) SSR (3) RQD (4) R&D 52. lh,evkj 1957 ds vuqlkj] Hkwfexr [kku dk U;wure vkslr ekfld mriknu fdruk gksuk pkfg,] tcfd lqj{kk vf/kdkjh ds ikl igys ntsz dk izca/kd izek.k&i= gks% (1) 5000 Vu (2) Vu (3) Vu (4) Vu 53.?kqekonkj Mªe dk O;kl jllh ds O;kl ls ^,* xquk ls de ugha gksxk ftlesa ^,* dk eku gs% (1) 50 (2) 75 (3) 100 (4) ftys ls lrg dh vksj tkus okys rfkk ftudk iz;ksx ;k=k ds fy, ugha fd;k tk jgk gs] [kuu ljnkj }kjk,sls lm+d&ekxksza dk fujh{k.k fdrus varjky ij fd;k tkuk pkfg,\ (1) 15 fnu esa de ls de,d ckj (2) 5 fnu esa de ls de,d ckj (3) 7 fnu esa de ls de,d ckj (4) 30 fnu esa de ls de,d ckj 55. Hkwfexr [kkuksa esa iz;qdr ydm+h ds dkxu flyijksa dh yackbz fueu ls de ugha gksuh pkfg,% (1) 90 lsavhehvj (2) 0.95 ehvj (3) 1.2 ehvj (4) 1 ehvj 56. VOD fueu ls lacaf/kr gs% (1) tykip;u (2) os/ku (3) dks;yk drzu e khu (4) folqksvd 57. e`nq ksy fuekz.k esa 20 ehvj ls 30 ehvj rd dh csap ÅapkbZ ds fy, iz;ksx ds oklrs fueu esa ls dksu&ls mr[kfu= dks ojh;rk nh tkrh gs\ (1) MªSxykbu (2) kkosy (3) cdsv Oghy mr[kfu= (4) isyksmj 30APX7 [ A 7]

9 58. In solid blasting which type of drilling pattern is generally adopted (1) Pyramid Cut (2) Wedge Cut (3) Burn Cut (4) Cor morant Cut 59. Over speeding of coal tubs are restricted by (1) Jazz rail (2) Monorail (3) Friction wheel (4) Driving wheel 60. Which type of machine is used to clean the dust-laden air? (1) Jig machine (2) Vortex cleaner (3) Cyclone separator (4) Electrostatic diffusion 61. Which of the following accessories is used with the over rope type haulage? (1) Lashing chain (2) Smallman clip (3) Dog catch (4) Khit 62. Which gas is synonymous with white damp (1) N2 (2) CO (3) CH4 (4) H2S 63. Barrier in between panels is preferably punctured at A numbers of places. Where A is given by: (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) Any number 64. A coal seam is said to be of degree III if rate of emission of gas in m3 /te of coal raised is: (1) is equal to 10 (2) less than 10 (3) more than 10 (4) in between 1 to Flame safety lamp is used for testing of (1) CO2 (2) CH4 (3) CO (4) H2S 66. Friction clutch is used for: (1) Endless haulage (2) Tail rope haulage (3) Belt conveyor (4) Scraper chain conveyor 58. Bksl folqksvu esa dksu&lk os?ku izfr:i vkerksj ij viuk;k tkrk gs\ (1) fijsfem dkv (2) ost dkv (3) nkg dkv (4) dkjeksjs.v dkv 59. dks;yk Vcksa dk vfrpkyu fueu }kjk izfrcaf/kr j[kk tkrk gs% (1) tkt jsy (2) eksuksjsy (3)?k kz.k ifg;k (4) pkyu ifg;k 60. /kwyhkjh ok;q dks lkq djus ds fy, fdl izdkj dh e khu dk iz;ksx fd;k tkrk gs\ (1) ftx e khu (2) oksjvsdl Dyhuj (3) pøokr i`fkddkjh (4) flfkjos qr folj.k 61. jllh ds Åij ¼vksoj jksi½ dh dksfv dh <qykbz ds fy, fueu esa ls dksu&ls dy&iqtks± dk iz;ksx fd;k tkrk gs\ (1) ysf kax psu (2) LekyeSu fdyi (3) Mkx dsp (4) f[kv 62. dksu&lh xsl lqsn lhyu dh i;kz;okph gs% (1) N2 (2) CO (3) CH4 (4) H2S 63. isuyksa ds chp csfj;j vf/kekur% ^,* LFkkuksa ij laosf/kr fd, tkrs gsa] tgka ^,* dk eku gs% (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) dksbz la[;k 64. dks;yk lhou dks fmxzh III dks lhou dgk tkrk gs ;fn mrikfnr dks;ys ds m3/te esa xsl dk fullj.k gks% (1) 10 ds cjkcj (2) 10 ls de (3) 10 ls vf/kd (4) 1 vksj 10 ds chp 65. Tokyk lqj{kk ysei dk iz;ksx fueu ds ijh{k.k ds fy, fd;k tkrk gs% (1) CO2 (2) CH4 (3) CO (4) H2S 66.?k kz.k Dyp dk iz;ksx fueu ds fy, fd;k tkrk gs% (1) vuar <qykbz (2) iqpn jttq <qykbz (3) iv~vk okfg= (4) vi?k kzd J`a[kyk okfg= 30APX7 [ A 8]

10 67. Reserve station is used for: (1) Taking shelter (2) Taking care of container of explosive (3) Taking rest (4) First aid 68. The minimum distance between two shafts of a mine is: (1) 11.5 mtrs (2) 13.5 mtrs (3) 15.5 mtrs (4) 17.5 mtrs 69. Keps are used in: (1) Koepe winding (2) Direct haulage (3) Endless haulage (4) Drum winding 70. Which of the following explosive have maximum strength: (1) ANFO (2) TNT (3) RDX (4) Nitroglycerine 71. Which one of the following composition of methane in air is most explosive in nature? (1) 7.5% by volume (2) 9.5% by volume (3) 11.5% by volume (4) 13.5% by volume 72. According to which regulation of CMR 1957 examination of travelling roadways & working places is required by the? (1) 113 (2) 39 (3) 41 (4) Which of the following attachment is used behind the set of ascending tubs (1) Safety catches (2) Back stay (3) Stop block (4) Drop war wick 74. Minimum distance between misfired hole &releave hole is: (1) 50 cm (2) 30 cm (3) 40 cm (4) 20 cm 75. Methanometer is used to detect: (1) Fire lamp (2) Block damp (3) Co-gas (4) None of these 67. fjtoz LVs ku dk iz;ksx fueu ds fy, fd;k tkrk gs% (1) vkj; ysuk (2) folqksvd ds /kkjd dh ns[khkky djuk (3) vkjke djuk (4) izkfkfed fpfdrlk 68. [kku dh nks kk Vksa ds chp dh U;wure nwjh gksuh pkfg,% (1) 11.5 ehvj (2) 13.5 ehvj (3) 15.5 ehvj (4) 17.5 ehvj 69. dsil dk iz;ksx fueu esa fd;k tkrk gs% (1) dhih foliz.k (2) lh/kh <qykbz (3) vuar <qykbz (4) Mªe foliz.k 70. fueu folqksvdksa esa ls fdlesa lokzf/kd kfdr gksrh gs% (1),,u,,Qvks (2) Vh,uVh (3) vkjmh,dl (4) ukbvªksfxyljhu 71. gok ds lkfk esfksu ds fueu fej.kksa esa ls dksu&lk fej.k izd`fr ls lokzf/kd folqksvd gksrk gs% (1) vk;ru 7.5% (2) vk;ru 9.5% (3) vk;ru 11.5% (4) vk;ru 13.5% 72. CMR 1957 ds dksu&ls fofu;e ds vuqlkj [kuu ljnkj }kjk ;k=k lm+d ekxksza vksj dk;zlfkyksa dh tkap visf{kr gs\ (1) 113 (2) 39 (3) 41 (4) vkjksgh Vcksa ds lsv ds ihns fueu esa ls dksu&lh layxuh dk iz;ksx fd;k tkrk gs\ (1) lqj{kk dspst (2) ca/kd dsfcy (3) LVki Cykd (4) Mªki okjfod 74. vfolqqfvr fnnz vksj fjyho fnnz ds chp dh U;wure nwjh gksuh pkfg,% (1) 50 lsavhehvj (2) 30 lsavhehvj (3) 40 lsavhehvj (4) 20 lsavhehvj 75. esfksuksehvj dk iz;ksx fueu dk irk yxkus ds fy, fd;k tkrk gs% (1) Qk;j ysei (2) Cykd MSEi (3) lg&xsl (4) buesa ls dksbz ugha 30APX7 [ A 9]

11 76. As per CMR 1957, unless otherwise directed the mining sirdar supposed to securing safety of (1) A district (2) Total mine including surface (3) Old panel (4) Total mine excluding surface 77. As per Indian law the methane concentration should not exceed A% in the return of a ventilation district. Where A is: (1) 0.25% (2) 0.65% (3) 0.75 % (4) 1.25% 78. Which of the following is not treated as Serious bodily injury? (1) Permanent loss of any part of the body (2) Permanent injury to the sight or hearing (3) Permanent physical incapacity or fracture to any bone (4) Injury to thumb of right hand for a period of 7 days 79. Body checker is the person who checks the person (1) Going into the mine (2) Working in the district (3) Working in the haulage room (4) Going in the Cap Lamp room 80. The mining sirdar must have a valid first aid certificate of standard of (1) Bachelor of Arts (2) St. John s Ambulance Association (India) (3) St. Martin s Ambulance Association (India) (4) Bachelor of Science 81. Hygrometric survey is carried out to check and control environmental conditions in mines. This is done by: (1) Whirling hygrometer (2) Assmanpsychometer (3) Fixed hygrometer (4) Manometer 82. A flexible coupling is used between: (1) Driver and gear (2) Driver and clutch (3) Driver and fluid coupling (4) Driver and driven shaft 83. Shots shall be charged and stemmed in presence of (1) Shot firer (2) (3) Overman (4) Explosive Incharge 76. CMR 1957 ds vuqlkj] tc rd vu;fkk funszf kr u fd;k x;k gks [kuu ljnkj ls fueu dh lqj{kk lqfuf pr djus dh vis{kk dh tkrh gs% (1),d ftyk (2) lrg lfgr lexz [kku (3) iqjkuk isuy (4) lrg jfgr lexz [kku 77. Hkkjrh; fof/k ds vuqlkj laokru ftys dh okilh esa esfksu ladsunz.k A% ls vf/kd ugha gksuk pkfg,] tgka A dk eku gs% (1) 0.25% (2) 0.65% (3) 0.75 % (4) 1.25% 78. fueu eas ls fdls ^xahkhj kkjhjfd {kfr* ugha le>k tkrk gs% (1) kjhj ds fdlh vax dh LFkk;h {kfr (2) n`f V ;k Jo.k dks LFkk;h {kfr (3) LFkk;h kkjhfjd fodykaxrk ;k fdlh gm~mh dk VwV tkuk (4) lh/ks gkfk ds vaxwbs esa 7 fnu ls vf/kd yach {kfr 79. dk; tkapdrkz og O;fDr gksrk gs tks ml O;fDr dh tkap djrk gs tks% (1) [kku esa tk jgk gks (2) ftys esa dke dj jgk gks (3) <qykbz d{k esa dke dj jgk gks (4) dsi ysei d{k esa tk jgk gks 80. [kuu ljdkj ds ikl fueu Lrj dk,d os/k izkfkfed fpfdrlk izek.k&i= vo ; gksuk pkfg,% (1) dyk Lukrd (2) lsav tku,sec;wysal,slksfl, ku ¼Hkkjr½ (3) lsav ekfvzu,sec;wysal,slksfl, ku ¼Hkkjr½ (4) fokku Lukrd 81. [kkuksa esa i;kzoj.kkred flfkfr;ksa dh tkap djus vksj mu ij dkcw j[kus ds fy, vknzzrkekih losz{k.k fd;k tkrk gsa ;g losz{k.k fueu }kjk fd;k tkrk gs% (1)?kw.khZ gkbxzksehvj (2),sleku lkbdksehvj (3) flfkj gkbxzksehvj (4) esuksehvj 82. fueu ds chp ue; difyax dk iz;ksx fd;k tkrk gs% (1) Mªkboj vksj fx;j (2) Mªkboj vksj Dyp (3) Mªkboj vksj rjy difyax (4) Mªkboj vksj pkfyr kk V 83. kkwv fueu dh miflfkfr esa vkosf kr vksj jksds tk,axs% (1) folqksvdkjh (2) [kuu ljnkj (3) vksojesu (4) folqksv izhkkjh 30APX7 [ A 10]

12 84. O.M.S means (1) Overman & (2) Output per manshift in tonnes (3) Other man in service (4) Over material stored 85. Roof bolts takes load in half an hour (1) 3 Te (2) 4 Te (3) 2 Te (4) 5 Te 86. The shot firer shall not fire the shot unless he withdraws the persons from one face fence to the other face, when two working faces in underground approaches at a distance of (1) 5 m (2) 10 m (3) 4.5 m (4) 6 m 87. Up to what distance from the working face in underground, spraying of water shall be done before blasting (1) 20 m (2) 30 m (3) 10 m (4) 18 m 88. The instrument used for measuring humidity is called: (1) Methanometer (2) Galvanometer (3) Hygrometer (4) Thermometer 89. DGMS comes under: (1) Ministry of Mines (2) Ministry of Labour (3) Ministry of Coal (4) Ministry of Law 90. Spontaneous heating may be detected by (1) Sensory indication (2) Hygrometric readings (3) Gas analysis (4) All of these 91. Electrical motor fire is a type of fire (1) Type D (2) Type E (3) Type A (4) Type C 92. Coal seams are normally found in: (1) Sedimentary rocks (2) Igneous rocks (3) Metamorphic rocks (4) Any type of rocks 84. O.M.S. dk folrkfjr :i gs% (1) Overman & (2) Output per manshift in tonnes (3) Other man in service (4) Over material stored 85. Nr dkcys vk/ks?kavs esa Hkkj ysrs gsa% (1) 3 Te (2) 4 Te (3) 2 Te (4) 5 Te 86. folqksfv= rc rd kkwv ugha yxk,xk tc rd og O;fDr;ksa dks,d lrg dh ckm+ ls gvkdj nwljh lrg ij u j[k ns tcfd Hkwfe ds uhps nks dk;zdkjh lrgsa fueu nwjh ij mixeu djrh gksa% (1) 5 ehvj (2) 10 ehvj (3) 4.5 ehvj (4) 6 ehvj 87. folqksvu ls iwoz Hkwfe ds uhps dk;zdkjh lrg ls fdruh nwjh rd ikuh dk fnm+dko fd;k tk,xk\ (1) 20 ehvj (2) 30 ehvj (3) 10 ehvj (4) 18 ehvj 88. vknzzrk ekius ds fy, iz;qdr vkstkj dgykrk gs% (1) esfksuksehvj (2) xsyosuksehvj (3) gkbxzksehvj (4) FkekZehVj 89. Mhth,e,l fueu ds v/khu vkrs gsa% (1) [kku ea=ky; (2) Je ea=ky; (3) dks;yk ea=ky; (4) fof/k ea=ky; 90. Lor% izofrzr rkiu fueu }kjk idm+k tk ldrk gs% (1) laosnh ladsru (2) gkbxzksehvjh ibu (3) xsl fo ys k.k (4) ;s lhkh 91. fctyh dh eksvj eas yxh vkx fueu dksfv dh vkx gksrh gs% (1) dksfv Mh (2) dksfv bz (3) dksfv, (4) dksfv lh 92. dks;yk lhous lkeku;r% fueu esas ikbz tkrh gsa% (1) volknh ksysa (2) vkxus; ksysa (3) dk;karjh ksysa (4) fdlh Hkh izdkj dh ksysa 30APX7 [ A 11]

13 93. Filling up of the void in opencast mines is known as: (1) Reclamation (2) OB removal (3) Trenching (4) Salvaging 94. Grahmas Ratio is the (1) CO2/ O2 consumed (2) CO/O2 consumed (3) CO/N2 consumed (4) None of these 95. Duty of at his working place in belowground mine is to: (1) Ascertain condition of ventilation (2) Pressure of gases (3) The state of roof and sides (4) All the above 96. Percentage of inflammable gas in gassy seam of the second degree is: (1) 1 (2) More than 1 (3) Less than 1 (4) None of these 97. Cross- bars or safari supports are set on the side clamps made in both side walls and the minimum depth of such holes is given by (1) 20 cm (2) 30 cm (3) 50 cm (4) 40 cm 98. Goaf in relation to bord and pillar or L/W working means a place as: (1) Coal has been extracted but now not a working place (2) Coal has been extracted but still a working place (3) Coal is about to be extracted (4) People has lawful access 99. More than 80% of underground coal production in India comes from: (1) Bord and pillar method (2) Long wall method (3) Hydraulic mining method (4) Blasting gallery method 100. The wet bulb temperature in below ground mine in any working place does not exceed: (1) 30.5 C (2) 33.5 C (3) 15 C (4) 10 C 93. foo`r [kkuksa esa varjky Hkjuk dgykrk gs% (1) mn~/kkj (2) vksch fu dklu (3) [kku [kksnuk (4) cpko 94. xzsge vuqikr gksrk gs% (1) mihkkst; CO2/O2 (2) mihkkst; CO/O2 (3) mihkkst; CO/N2 (4) buesa ls dksbz ugha 95. Hkwfexr [kku esa vius dk;zlfky ij [kuu ljnkj dk drzo; gksrk gs% (1) laokru dh flfkfr dk irk yxkuk (2) xslksa dh nkc (3) Nr vksj ik oksza dh flfkfr (4) mi;qzdr lhkh 96. nwljh fmxzh dh xslh; lhou esa Toyu khy xsl dk izfr kr gksrk gs% (1) 1 (2) 1 ls vf/kd (3) 1 ls de (4) bueas ls dksbz ugha 97. nksuksa ik oz nhokjksa esa cuk, x, ik oz DySEiksa ij Øklckj ;k lqkjh Vsdsa yxk nh tkrh gs vksj,sls fnnzkas dh U;wure xgjkbz fueukuqlkj gksrh gs% (1) 20 lsavhehvj (2) 30 lsavhehvj (3) 50 lsavhehvj (4) 40 lsavhehvj 98. cksmz rfkk LrEHk vfkok L/W dk;zdj.k ds lanhkz esa ^xksq* dk vk k; fueu LFky ls gksrk gs% (1) dks;ys dk fu d kz.k fd;k tk pqdk gs ysfdu vc og dk;zlfky ugha gs (2) dks;ys dk fu d kz.k fd;k tk pqdk gs ysfdu vhkh Hkh dk;zlfky gsa (3) dks;ys dk fu d kz.k gksus okyk gs (4) yksxksa dks dkuwuh igqap izkir gs 99. Hkkjr esa 80% ls vf/kd Hkwfexr dks;yk mriknu fueu ls izkir gksrk gs% (1) cksmz rfkk LrEHk fof/k (2) nh?kz nhokj fof/k (3) tyh; [kuu fof/k (4) folqksvu xsyjh fof/k 100. fdlh Hkh dk;zlfky esas Hkwfexr [kku esa vknzz cyc rkieku fueu ls vf/kd ugha gksrk% (1) 30.5 C (2) 33.5 C (3) 15 C (4) 10 C 30APX7 [ A 12]

14 bl iqflrdk ij dqn Hkh fy[kus ls igys fueufyf[kr funsz'k /;kuiwozd i<+sa 1. viuk mùkj fy[kuk çkjehk djus ls igys viuh ç'u iqflrdk dh Hkyh&Hkk fr tk p dj ysa] ns[k ysa fd blesa 100 ç'u gsa ¼Hkkx&A : 25 ç u lkeku; Kku rfkk Hkkx&B : 75 ç u lecfu/kr fo k kk[kk@rduhdh vfhk:fp ij gksxsa) vksj blesa fçafvax laca/kh vfkok vu; fdle dh dksbz deh ugha gsa ;fn fdlh çdkj dh dksbz deh gks rks i;zos{kd dks lwfpr djsa rfkk iqflrdk cny ysaa bl lanhkz esa fdlh Hkh çdkj dh dksbz f'kdk;r ij ckn esa dksbz fopkj ugha fd;k tk,xka 2. vks-,e-vkj- mùkj if=dk ij lhkh dk;ks± ds fy, uhys@dkys ckwy Iokb±V isu ls fy[ksaa vks-,e-vkj mùkj if=dk ij vksoy dks iw.kz :i ls dsoy uhys@dkys ckwy Iokb±V isu ls HkjsaA,d ckj fn, x, mùkj dks cnyk ugha tk ldrka 3. ;g,d olrqijd fdle dh ijh{kk gs ftlesa çr;sd ç'u ds uhps Øekad (1) ls (4) rd pkj çlrkfor mùkj fn;s gsaa vkids fopkj esa tks Hkh mùkj lgh gs mldks vks,e vkj mùkj i= esa fpfugr dhft,a vius mùkj ç'u iqflrdk esa u yxk,a 4. lhkh ç u vfuok;z gsaa 5. mùkj&i= ij u rks jq+ dk;z djsa u gh vksj fdlh çdkj dk fu'kku vkfn yxk,a ;k bls eksam+sa 6. mùkj if=dk bysdvªkwfud ek/;e ls lalkf/kr dh tk;sxha vr% bls eksm+us ;k ;=&r= fpug yxkus vfkok mùkj if=dk dks [kjkc djus,oa viw.kz@vlr; Hkjus ij mùkj if=dk dks fujlr fd;k tk ldrk gs,oa bldh iwjh fteesnkjh vh;fkê ij gksxha 7. jq+ dk;z iqflrdk esa fdlh Hkh [kkyh LFkku esa fd;k tkuk pkfg,a fdlh vu; dkx+t ij bls djus dh vuqefr ugha gsa 8. dsydqysvj] LykbM:y] eksckbzy] dsydqysvj?kfm+;k ;k bl çdkj dh dksbz Hkh ;qfä,oa fdlh Hkh v/;;u@lanhkz lkexzh vkfn dk ç;ksx ijh{kk d{k esa oftzr gsa 9. ijh{kk dh lekfir ds i'pkr~ mùkj&if=dk i;zos{kd dks okil dj nsaa OMR mùkj if=dk dks ijh{kk d{k ls ckgj ys tkuk oftzr gs,slk djuk n.m.kh; vijk/k gsa vki viuh ç u&iqflrdk ijh{kk dh lekfir ds i pkr~ ys tk ldrs gsaa 10. gj,d ç'u ds fy, dsoy,d gh mùkj bafxr djs aa,d ls vf/kd mùkj nsus ij ç'u dk dksbz vad ugha fn;k tk,xka mùkj esa dksbz Hkh dfvax ;k vksojjkbzfvax eku; ugha gksxha iqu% ç'u i= f}hkk"kh; ¼fgUnh,oa vaxzsth½ esa gsa fgunh laldj.k esa fdlh Hkh fhkérk gksus ij ewy;kadu ds fy, vaxzsth laldj.k dks vfure ekuk tk;sxka

CENTRAL COUNCIL OF INDIAN MEDICINE NEW DELHI

CENTRAL COUNCIL OF INDIAN MEDICINE NEW DELHI 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 136y 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.