2017 MN FFA Ag Mechanics CDE Exam. Multiple Choice Bubble in the most correct answer. DO NOT WRITE ON EXAM

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1 2017 MN FFA Ag Mechanics CDE Exam Multiple Choice Bubble in the most correct answer. DO NOT WRITE ON EXAM SKID STEER LOADER 1. This hydraulic pump can change output flow without a change in rpm. a. fixed displacement b. open centered c. Variable displacement d. positive displacement 2. This term describes a hydraulic system that is capable of adjusting to the weight and speed demands of the skid steer machine otherwise maintaining a standby mode. a. open centered b. closed centered c. pressure flow compensated d. closed centered orifice tubed 3. A milky condition of the hydraulic system indicates: a. air in the system b. cross contamination of oils c. water in the oil d. foaming oil 4. What determines speed changes on a constant mesh transmission: a. the number of teeth or gear ratios of meshed gears on input and out shafts b. the angle of the swashplate on the output shaft vs the input shaft c. sliding gears on shafts to mesh with other gears d. depressing and releasing the clutch mechanism 5. A hydrostatic skid steer is capable of turning very sharp due to: a. the differential in the drive train b. the final drives in the drive train c. the locking of hydraulic motors an skidding of tires d. the brake system in the drive train 6. The best source for machine operation and adjustment is found in the: a. machine assembly manual b. machine service manual c. machine operators manual d. machine sales literature

2 7. When installing a battery charger or jumper cables to assist in starting a skid steer, which of the following statements is true: a. install the red handled cable to the negative post on the battery b. always install the negative cable to the battery prior to the positive c. install the red cable to the battery positive post or the designated positive attaching post d. install the black handled cable to the positive post on the battery 8. Many of the smaller diesel engines are naturally aspirated. This means that the air is forced into the cylinder by: a. turbocharger b. atmospheric pressure c. roots blower d. supercharger 9. The four basic components of a hydraulic system include: a. pump, reservoir, valve, cylinder b. pump, hoses, cylinder, reservoir c. motor, pump, hoses, cylinder d. reservoir, pump, hoses, valve 10. At top dead center of the compression stroke of a diesel engine: a. intake valve is closed and exhaust valve is closed b. intake valve is closed and the exhaust value is open c. intake valve and exhaust valve are both open d. the valve positioning could vary with the engine type/manufacturer ELECTRICAL CONTROLS AND SENSING DEVICES 11. This component responds to changes in moisture in a grain drying system: a. thermostat b. humidistat c. rheostat d. relay 12. Under normal operating conditions, the on/off electric motor magnetic switch contacts are closed by a: a. capacitors b. electro-magnet c. inductance purge d. repulsion pulse 13. A switch is used to shut off an auger when the grain bin is full. a. limit b. overload c. solenoid d. overflow

3 14. To control a circuit carrying large current demands with a low current circuit you would use a. relay b. breaker c. overload switch d. time delay switch 15. A stores electrical energy in an electrostatic field: a. potentiometer b. transistor c. rheostat d. capacitor 16. If all of these motors are the same size which would start the greatest load: a. split phase b. shaded pole c. capacitor start d. synchronous 17. These motors are used in small food mixers, portable drills, portable power saws etc: a. split phase b. capacitor start c. shaded pole d. universal 18. These motors are designed for loads that are difficult to start: a. universal b. repulsion-start, induction-run c. shaded pole d. split phase 19. A motor nameplate reads 115/230 and 15/7.5 amperes. How much current does this motor use if fully loaded and wired to 115 volt supply: a. 7.5 amperes b. 20 amperes c. 15 amperes d. 30 amperes 20. This device is used for overcurrent protection and can be reset after being tripped: a. fuse b. circuit breaker c. GFFC d. time delay fuse

4 LARGE OR SMALL ENGINES 21. When the ring gap measures.025 and the rejection specification is.035 the rings: a Must be replaced b. Must be aligned on the piston c. Should be filed to meet the specification d. need not be replaced 22. The richest air-fuel mixture is required at engine: a. start up b. full load c. low idle d. high idle 23. Fuel is vaporized in the carburetor to: a. increase its heat contact prior to ignition b. help each molecule contact enough oxygen to ignite fully c. eliminate the water vapor in the fuel d. increase the fuel to air ratio 24. At top dead center of the compression stroke of a small engine: a. the intake valve is closed and the exhaust valve is open b. the exhaust valve is closed and the intake valve is open c. both intake and exhaust valves are open d. both intake and exhaust valves are closed 25. The purpose of the secondary winding in an ignition system is: a. the secondary windings are a backup to the primary windings which increases reliability. b. the primary field collapse, the line of magnetic flux pass into the secondary windings inducing enough voltage to jump the spark plug gap. c. Allow a storage facility for the magnetic flux when the transmitter opens the circuit d. to induce current into the primary winding to fire the spark plug. 26. The top ring on the piston is called the: a. keystone ring b. compression ring c. oil ring d. centering ring 27. The spec s in your manual calls for 84 in-lbs torque for head bolts, what torque setting would you use to tighten the bolts with a torque wrench calibrated in ft-lbs? a. 70 ft-lbs. b. 7 ft-lbs. c. 8.4 ft-lbs d ft-lbs

5 28. After a four stroke cycle engine has completed one full operating cycles the crankshaft has traveled how many degrees? a. 360 degrees b. 920 degrees c. 720 degrees d. 180 degrees 29. The wear in an engine bore that is defined as the difference in cylinder diameter at the top, middle and bottom is called? a. out of round b. distortion c. taper d. scoring 30. Backlash is defined as: a. clearance between the teeth of two mated gears b. end to end movement of two gears on a shaft c. cannot be measured with a dial indicator d. the side movement of the connecting rod on the crankshaft CONCRETE, MASONRY AND PLUMBING 31. Concrete is reinforced due to relatively low: a. compressive strength b. heat resistance c. tensile strength d. cold resistance 32. Courses of block are laid in a straight line by using a: a. masons line b. plumb bob c. transit d. masons level 33. A large, flat, rectangular piece of wood, aluminum or magnesium about 8 wide and 40 to 60 inches long with a handle up to 16 ft long used to level concrete immediately after it has been struck is called: a. edger b. bull float c. lute d. darby 34. To prevent forms from sticking to concrete they are treated with: a. wax b. enamel paint c. lime d. oil

6 35. IF a wall is vertically straight it is referred to as being: a. plumb b. level c. in alignment d. sighted 36. The concrete finishing process that produces a smooth hard surface on concrete is called; a. floating b. edging c. troweling d. screeding 37. The process of regulating the drying time of concrete is called: a. finishing b. process drying c. curing d. refurbishing 38. This material if used on threaded fittings to prevent leakage at pipe connections: a. anti-seize compound b. pipe dope c. stratus tape d. black tape 39. The reason for applying PVC cleaning compound to the plastic joint prior to cementing is: a. to prevent oxidation b. to remove substances that might interfere with a good bond c. etch the material d. to allow the solder to flow 40. Which of the following statements is not true: a. PE (Polyethylene) pipe is highly resistant to rodents and puncture b. PVC (Polyvinyl chloride) pipe has a higher safe working pressure than PE pipe c. PVC pipe has a high resistance to deterioration from sunlight d. PE pipe is more tolerant to cold temperature than PVC METAL FABRICATION MIG, COLD METAL 41. A hacksaw blade is installed so that saw cuts on: a. both the forward and back stroke b. the back stroke only c. the forward stroke only d. the forward or back stroke depending in the right or left hand design blade 42. Threads are cut in a drilled hole with a: a. tap b. die c. reamer d. self-tapping bolt

7 43. Warping of welded metal is caused by: a. too high a welding current b. excessive travel speed c. insufficient penetration d. heating and cooling of metal 44. A primary function of flux coating and shielding gases is: a. keep the electrode or wire from rusting b. protect and keep impurities out of the weld c. cool the welding process immediately after the bond d. help level the molten metal to form a uniform bead. 45. This procedure will usually decrease penetration, assuming all other factors remain constant: a. increasing the amperage b. using a smaller diameter electrode c. slowing the rate of forward travel d. decreasing electrode angle 46. The GMAW Gas Metal Arc Welding process has also been referred to as: a. stick welding b. slagless welding c. flame welding d. MIG welding 47. A long V-shaped ripple on the surface of a weld bead may be due to: a. long arc b. low electrode angle c. fast rate of travel d. high amperage 48. The temperature of an electric welding arc is about: a degrees F b degrees F c. 500 degrees F d. 900 degrees F 49. Correct arc length for most welding processes is: a. 1/4 inch b. 1/8 inch c. 3/8 inch d. 1/32 inch 50. The portion of time a welder can be operated without overheating is known as its a. duty cycle b. voltage drop c. droop d. induction rule

8 1. C 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. C 6. C 7. C 8. B 9. A 10. A 11. B 12. B 13. A 14. A 15. D 16. C 17. C 18. B 19. C 20. B 21. D 22. A 23. B 24. D 25. B 2017 MN FFA Ag Mechanics CDE Exam Key 26. B 27. B 28. C 29. C 30. A 31. C 32. A 33. B 34. D 35. A 36. C 37. C 38. B 39. B 40. A 41. C 42. A 43. D 44. B 45. D 46. D 47. B 48. B 49. B 50. A