Doug Carmody Beaufort, SC September 2013

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2 The King Air 350 Oral Exam Guide is a compilation of over 450 questions asked during actual 350 type rating check rides. Some questions are simple, while others are very complex. A few are just plain ridiculous but are included because examiners keep asking them. I update this oral exam guide every six months to keep the questions timely and pertinent. Feel free to me any questions you were asked during your oral that were not included in this edition. My address is dscarmody@kingairtraining.com. Good luck on your check ride! Doug Carmody Beaufort, SC September 2013

3 TABLE OF CONTENTS CHAPTER 1: LIMITATIONS AND SPECIFICATIONS OF THE KING AIR SPECIFICATIONS... 7 WEIGHT LIMITATIONS... 7 CENTER OF GRAVITY LIMITATIONS... 8 AIRSPEED LIMITATIONS... 8 PERFORMANCE LIMITATIONS... 9 TAKEOFF AND LANDING... 9 ENROUTE... 9 PROLONGED GROUND OPERATION ELECTRICAL LIMITATIONS ENGINE LIMITATIONS APPROVED OILS FUEL LIMITATIONS APPROVED FUEL ADDITIVES FUEL BIOCIDE ADDITIVES FUEL QUANTITY FUEL IMBALANCE FUEL CROSSFEED FUEL GAGES IN THE YELLOW ARC AUXILIARY FUEL OPERATING WITH LOW FUEL PRESSURE PROPELLER LIMITATIONS PROPELLER AUTOFEATHER CHAPTER 2: ELECTRICAL POWER SYSTEMS ELECTRICAL SYSTEM AC ELECTRICAL SYSTEM INVERTERS DC STARTER/GENERATORS... 17

4 VOLTAGE REGULATION STARTER/GENERATOR PARALLELING OVEREXCITATION PROTECTION REVERSE CURRENT AND POLARITY PROTECTION OVERVOLTAGE PROTECTION CROSS-START OVERLOAD CURRENT LIMITING GENERATOR BUS-TIE AND BUS-SENSE SWITCHES BATTERY EXTERNAL POWER AVIONICS POWER DISTRIBUTION CHAPTER 3: LIGHTING EXTERIOR ANTI-COLLISION LIGHTS RECOGNITION LIGHTS TAIL FLOODLIGHTS LANDING AND TAXI LIGHTS NAVIGATION LIGHTS EMERGENCY LIGHTING READING LIGHTS ENTRY AND LOADING LIGHTS INTERIOR VESTIBULE, AFT COMPARTMENT LIGHTS AND EXIT SIGNS ANNUNCIATOR LIGHTS INSTRUMENT INDIRECT LIGHTS CHAPTER 4: MASTER WARNING SYSTEM CHAPTER 5: FUEL SYSTEM CHAPTER 6: POWERPLANT CHAPTER 7: FIRE PROTECTION CHAPTER 8: PNEUMATICS/VACUUM CHAPTER 9: ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION SURFACE DEICER INDICATING SYSTEM... 37

5 AIR INTAKE ANTI-ICE LIP INERTIAL SEPARATION ANTI-ICE SYSTEM BRAKE DEICE SYSTEM WINDSHIELD ANTI-ICE WINDSHIELD WIPERS WINDOW DEFOG SYSTEM PROPELLER ELECTRIC DEICERS CHAPTER 10: ENVIRONMENTAL ENVIRONMENTAL BLEED AIR DISTRIBUTION HEATING AIR CONDITIONING ENVIRONMENTAL AIR DISTRIBUTION AIR DISTRIBUTION AFT BLOWER BLEED AIR DISTRIBUTION DEFROST AND FLIGHT COMPARTMENT HEAT BLEED AIR HEAT ELECTRIC HEAT COOLING TEMPERATURE CONTROL CHAPTER 11: PRESSURIZATION BLEED AIR VALVES FLOW CONTROL UNIT HEAT EXCHANGERS PRESSURIZATION CONTROL CHAPTER 12: LANDING GEAR AND BRAKES STEERING LIMITS LANDING GEAR OPERATION BRAKES TIRES... 53

6 CHAPTER 13: FLIGHT CONTROLS OPERATION TRIM TABS FLAP SAFETY MECHANISM FLAPS RUDDER BOOST STALL WARNING SAFE FLIGHT SYSTEM GUST LOCKS AND DAMPER CHAPTER 14: MISCELLANEOUS SYSTEMS CHAPTER 15: MEMORY ITEMS CHAPTER 16: ANNUNCIATORS... 64

7 King Air The Oral Exam Guide 7 Chapter 1 LIMITATIONS AND SPECIFICATIONS OF THE KING AIR 350 SPECIFICATIONS 1. What is the length of the King Air 350? What is the height of the King Air 350? What is the wingspan of the King Air 350? What is the span of the horizontal stabilizer? What is the wing dihedral? 6. WEIGHT LIMITATIONS 6. What is the maximum ramp weight? 15,100 pounds. 7. What is the maximum takeoff weight? 15,000 pounds. 8. What three things can limit maximum takeoff weight? The three limiting factors include the maximum takeoff weight that achieves takeoff climb requirements, maximum tire speed, and the takeoff field length. 9. What is the maximum landing weight? 15,000 pounds.

8 King Air The Oral Exam Guide What two things can limit maximum landing weight? The limiting factors include the maximum landing weight to achieve climb requirements; normal landing distance flaps down. 11. What is the maximum zero fuel weight? 12,500 pounds. 12. What is the maximum weight in the baggage compartment? 550 pounds without jump seats; 510 pounds with jump seats. CENTER OF GRAVITY LIMITATIONS 13. What is the AFT limit? inches (5283 mm) aft of datum at all times. 14. What are the forward limits? inches aft of datum at 11,800 pounds, with straight line variation to inches aft of datum at 15,000 pounds, inches aft of datum at 11,800 pounds or less. 15. What is the datum limit? The reference datum is located 83.5 inches forward of the center of the front jack point. 16. What is the Mean Aerodynamic Chord? The leading edge of the MAC is at F.S The MAC length is inches. 17. What maneuvers are prohibited in the King Air 350? Aerobatic maneuvers (including spins) are prohibited. AIRSPEED LIMITATIONS 18. What is the Maneuvering Speed (VA)? 184 KIA. Do not make full or abrupt control movements above this speed. 19. What is the Maximum Flap Extension/Extended Speed (VFE)? Approach: 202 KIAS; Full Down: 158 KIAS. Do not extend flaps or operate with flaps extended above these speeds. 20. What is the Maximum Landing Gear Operating Speed (VLO)? Extension: 184 KIAS; Retraction 166 KIAS. Do not extend or retract landing gear above these speeds.

9 King Air The Oral Exam Guide What is the Maximum Landing Gear Extended Speed (VLE )? 184 KIAS. Do not exceed this speed with landing gear extended. 22. What is the Air Minimum Control Speed (VMCA) Propeller Feathered? Flaps Up: 94 KIAS; Flaps Approach: 93 KIAS. These are the lowest airspeeds at which the airplane is directionally controllable when one engine suddenly becomes inoperative, with autofeather armed, and the other engine at takeoff power. 23. What is the Maximum Operating Speed (VLO) at Sea Level to 21,000 feet? 263 KIAS. This speed may not be deliberately exceeded in any flight regime. 24. What is the Maximum Operating Speed (VLO) at 21,000 to 35,000 feet? KIAS (0.58 Mach). Red Pointer reflects VLO/ MMO limits. PERFORMANCE LIMITATIONS TAKEOFF AND LANDING 25. What is the maximum ambient temperature to use brake deice? 15 C. 26. What is the maximum outside air temperature (limiting)? Sea level to 25,000 feet pressure altitude ISA + 37 C; Above 25,000 feet pressure altitude ISA + 31 C. 27. What is the maximum tailwind component (limiting)? The maximum tailwind is 10 knots. 28. What is the crosswind component (demonstrated, not limiting)? The maximum demonstrated crosswind is 20 knots. ENROUTE 29. What is the maximum operating altitude? 35,000 feet. 30. What are the enroute temperature limits? 1. The maximum temperature to FL 250 is ISA + 37 C. 2. The maximum temperature above FL 250 is ISA + 31 C.

10 King Air The Oral Exam Guide What are the maximum generator load limits in flight? 1. Sea level to 34,000 feet altitude 100%. 2. Above 34,000 feet altitude 95%. PROLONGED GROUND OPERATION 32. What are the maximum generator load limits on the ground? The maximum load depends on the N1 speed: Below 70% N1 = 75% load; Above 70% N1 = 100% load. ELECTRICAL LIMITATIONS 33. The Starter/Generator produces how many volts and amps? The starter/generator produces 28 volts/300 amps. 34. What are the starter time limits? Limited to 30 seconds ON, 5 minutes OFF, 30 seconds ON, 5minutes OFF, 30 seconds ON, then 30 minutes OFF. 35. What is the normal system voltage? Normal voltage is What should the GPU be set to for engine start? Set the GPU to 1000 amp surge, 300 amp continuous. 37. What is the minimum recommended battery volts prior to applying External Pwr? 23 volts. 38. What is the absolute minimum battery volts prior to apply External Pwr? 20 volts. ENGINE LIMITATIONS 39. What are the maximum N1 limits? 1. Idle minimum 62%. 2. Takeoff 104%. 3. Maximum continuous 104%. 4. Transient 104%.

11 King Air The Oral Exam Guide What are the ITT limits? 1. Idle Maximum reverse Cruise climb Takeoff Maximum continuous Maximum cruise Transient 850 which is time limited to 20 seconds. 8. Start 1000 which is time limited to 5 seconds. 41. What are the maximum Prop RPM limits? 1. Idle 1050 minimum. 2. Cruise Maximum reverse Takeoff Maximum continuous Inadvertent 1735/7 minutes. 7. Transient 1870/20 seconds. 42. What are the maximum Torque limits? 1. Takeoff & Maximum continuous 100%. 2. Inadvertent 102%/7 minutes. 3. Transient 156%/20 seconds. 43. What is the maximum torque limit below 1000 RPM? Below 1000 propeller rpm, torque is limited to 62%. 44. What are normal oil pressure readings? Normal oil pressure is 90 to 135 psi at gas generator speeds above 72%. Oil pressures below 90 psi are undesirable. 45. What procedure should be followed if oil pressure falls to 60 psi? Under emergency conditions, to complete a flight, a lower oil pressure limit of 60 psi is permissible at a reduced power level not to exceed 62% torque. 46. What procedure should be followed if the oil pressure falls below 60 psi? Oil pressures below 60 psi are unsafe and require that either the engine be shut down or a landing be made at the nearest suitable airport, using the minimum power required to sustain flight. 47. During extremely cold temperatures, oil pressure may reach what value during start? During extremely cold starts, oil pressure may reach 200 psi.

12 King Air The Oral Exam Guide What is the minimum oil temperature recommended for fuel heater operation? A minimum oil temperature of 55 C is recommended for fuel heater operation at takeoff power. 49. What are the oil temperature limits? Oil temperature limits are -40 C and +110 C. However, temperatures between 99 C and 110 C are limited to a maximum of 10 minutes. 50. How are high ITT temperatures corrected on the ground? High ITT is corrected by reducing accessory load and/or increasing N1 rpm. APPROVED OILS 51. What are the approved engine oils? Only those engine oils listed in P&WC Service Bulletin are to be used in the PT6A-60A engines. Do not mix oils. FUEL LIMITATIONS 52. What are approved engine fuels? 1. Jet A, Jet A-1, Jet B. 2. JP-4, JP-5, JP What are the approved emergency fuels? COMMERCIAL AVIATION GASOLINE GRADES: 80 Red; 91/96; 100 Green; 100LL Blue; 115/145 Purple. 54. How long can the engine be operated on aviation gasoline? Operation is limited to 150 hours between engine overhauls; Operation is prohibited if either of the standby fuel pumps is inoperative; Crossfeed capability is required for flight above 20,000 feet pressure altitude (FL200). APPROVED FUEL ADDITIVES 55. What anti-icing additives are approved for use? Anti-icing additive conforming to MIL-I or MIL-I may be used.

13 King Air The Oral Exam Guide 13 FUEL BIOCIDE ADDITIVES 56. What concentration of biocide can be used in the fuel? Fuel biocide-fungicide BIOBOR JF in concentrations of 135 ppm or 270 ppm may be used in the fuel. FUEL QUANTITY 57. What is the total usable fuel quantity? 539 gallons (3611 pounds) 58. How much fuel does each main tank hold? 190 gallon (1273 pounds) 59. How much fuel does each auxiliary tank hold? 79.5 gallons (533 pounds) FUEL IMBALANCE 60. What is the maximum fuel imbalance? Maximum allowable fuel imbalance between wing fuel systems is 300 pounds. FUEL CROSSFEED 61. When is fuel crossfeed operation authorized? Crossfeeding of fuel is permitted only when one engine is inoperative. 62. How many standby fuel pumps are required for takeoff? One operative standby fuel pump is required for takeoff when using approved engine fuels, but in such a case, crossfeed of fuel will not be available from the side of the inoperative standby fuel pump. 63. How many fuel pumps must be operational when operating on avgas? Two operative standby fuel pumps are required for takeoff when operating on emergency engine fuels. FUEL GAGES IN THE YELLOW ARC 64. What does the yellow arc represent? Do not take off if fuel quantity gages indicate in yellow arc or indicate less than 265 pounds (120 kg) of fuel in each wing system.

14 King Air The Oral Exam Guide 14 AUXILIARY FUEL 65. When can you fill the auxiliary tanks? Do not put any fuel into the auxiliary tanks unless the main tanks are full. OPERATING WITH LOW FUEL PRESSURE 66. What is the time limit for operating with the low fuel pressure annunciator light illuminated? The high pressure engine driven fuel pump can be operated for 10 hours before overhaul or replacement. PROPELLER LIMITATIONS 67. What are the propeller limits? 1. Transients not exceeding 20 seconds 1870 RPMS. 2. Reverse 1650 RPMS. 3. All other conditions 1700 RPMS. 4. Minimum idle speed 1050 RPMS. 68. What does a sustained propeller RPM over 1700 indicate? Sustained propeller overspeeds faster than 1700 rpm indicate failure of the primary governor. 69. May flight be continued with a propeller overspeed? Flight may be continued at propeller overspeeds up to 1768 rpm, provided torque is limited to 96%. Sustained propeller overspeeds faster than 1768 rpm indicate failure of both the primary governor and the secondary governor, and such overspeeds are not approved. PROPELLER AUTOFEATHER 70. When should the propeller autofeather system be armed? The propeller autofeather system should be operable for all flights and should be armed for takeoff, climb, approach and landing.

15 King Air The Oral Exam Guide 15 Chapter 2 ELECTRICAL POWER SYSTEMS ELECTRICAL SYSTEM 1. Describe the electrical system: The King Air 350 electrical system is a 28-volt DC, single-loop, triple-fed system with a negative ground. 2. What supplies normal DC power? During normal operation, two 28-volt, 300-ampere starter-generators and a 24-volt nickelcadmium battery, or a 24-volt lead-acid battery, supply all of the airplane's electrical needs. 3. Where is the battery located? A battery is installed in the RH wing center section between the RH nacelle and fuselage. 4. Battery power is connected to which buses? Battery power is connected to the battery bus, the center bus, and the triple-fed bus. 5. What protects the five electrical buses? The five primary buses are individually protected by current sensors, limiters, diodes and relays. Load-shedding is accomplished by isolating a faulty bus from those that are still functional, thereby preventing a failure of the entire electrical system. 6. Which relays close when the Battery Switch is placed to on? Battery relay and Battery Bus Tie relay. 7. Describe Automatic Load Shedding? Automatically sheds the generator busses as necessary to reduce excess loads. 8. What is on the Dual Fed Bus? L Engine Fire Ext; R Engine Fire Ext; Cabin Entry Lights 9. Explain the functions of the Generator Control Unit? Voltage regulation; Overvoltage/over-excitation protection; Paralleling/load sharing (within 10%); Reverse current protection; Cross-gen start current limiting; Isolates failed/off gen from its bus.

16 King Air The Oral Exam Guide 16 AC ELECTRICAL SYSTEM 10. Describe the AC electrical system. The AC electrical system is a 115-VAC and 26-VAC, single phase, 400 Hz system. It operates on 28 VDC and provides AC power to certain avionics and electrical equipment. The system consists of two static inverters, two bus-transfer relays, an AC power monitor circuit card and associated switches, circuit breakers, and annunciators. 11. What will cause the red AC Bus annunciator light to illuminate? A fault on the AC bus or loss of AC power. 12. Where are the AC Bus circuit breakers located? On the fuel panel CB panel. INVERTERS (if installed) 13. Where are the inverters located? The two static inverters are located in the left and right wing center section, outboard of each nacelle. 14. What is the purpose of the inverters? The inverters convert a 28 VDC input to single phase 400 Hz AC at 115 VAC and 26 VAC. Voltage and frequency regulation are accomplished internally. Voltage regulation is +5% to -7% and frequency is 400 ± 1%. 15. What is the power source for the inverters? The No. 1 inverter is powered from the center bus. The No. 2 inverter is powered from the right generator bus. 16. How many inverters are there on the King Air 350? There are 2 with 750 volt-amp output, and 400 hz, 115 & 26 VAC outputs. 17. Do both inverters have to be on during normal A/C operations? Yes, the A/C system is designed to operate on two inverters.

17 King Air The Oral Exam Guide 17 DC STARTER/GENERATORS 18. Describe the starter/generators. The starter/generators are dual purpose, 28-volt, 300-ampere units which produce torque for engine starts or generate electrical current to meet the airplane electrical loads. 19. How are the starter/generators cooled on the ground? An internal shaft-driven fan draws outside air through the starter/generator to provide ground cooling. VOLTAGE REGULATION 20. What does the generator control unit do? The generator control unit monitors starter/generator output voltage and controls the shunt field excitation to maintain a constant voltage under varying operating conditions such as speed, load, and temperature. 21. How do you reset the generator? The switch must be placed in the GEN RESET position to excite the field, increase starter/generator output and bring it back on the line. STARTER/GENERATOR PARALLELING 22. Describe generator paralleling. The generator control panels incorporate circuitry to maintain the starter/generator electrical loads within 10 percent of each other for their entire operating range. OVEREXCITATION PROTECTION 23. What is overexcitation? When a failure occurs causing excessive field excitation, the affected starter/generator will attempt to carry all of the airplane s electrical load. During parallel operation, this is sensed at the generator control unit by comparing voltages of the starter/generators. 24. What overexcitation protection is available? The starter/generator will be de-energized if generator bus voltage is greater than VDC and the output current differential between starter/generators is greater than 15 percent for 5 seconds.

18 King Air The Oral Exam Guide 18 REVERSE CURRENT AND POLARITY PROTECTION 25. What is reverse current? When the generator field becomes underexcited for any reason, or when the starter/generator slows down to a point where it can no longer maintain a positive load, it will begin to draw current from the center bus. OVERVOLTAGE PROTECTION 26. What is the starter/generator overvoltage limit? If the affected starter/generator output voltage rises above 32.5 VDC, it will be removed from the bus and the unaffected starter/generator will automatically be reconnected. CROSS-START OVERLOAD CURRENT LIMITING 27. Explain the cross-starting protection system. The generator control panels have a feature that limits the on-line starter/generator output current during engine cross-starts. This circuit prevents the on-line starter/generator from providing excess current to the starter/generator being used as a starter. GENERATOR BUS-TIE AND BUS-SENSE SWITCHES 28. What is the function of the generator bus-tie switch? The generator bus-tie switch, located on the pilot s outboard subpanel, has several functions implemented through three switch positions: the MAN CLOSED position manually closes the generator bus-tie relays through the bus-tie control PCB, which also illuminates the green MAN TIES CLOSE annunciator; the NORM position allows the bus-tie PCB to analyze bus voltages and automatically close the generator bus-tie relays when no fault exists. 29. What is the function of the Bus-Sense Switch? It controls the over-current sensing function of Bus-Tie system. BATTERY 30. What type of battery is installed in the airplane? The airplane is equipped with either a 24-volt, 36-ampere-hour, nickel-cadmium battery, or a 24- volt, 42-ampere-hour Capacity Rate, valve-regulated sealed lead-acid battery.

19 King Air The Oral Exam Guide What is the purpose of the battery charge current monitor? A battery charge current monitor is installed to provide a visual indication of abnormal battery charge current. The system provides an indication when the conditions exist for a thermal runaway of the nickel-cadmium battery. 32. When will the battery charge annunciator illuminate? Following an engine start, the BATTERY CHARGE annunciator illuminates and remains on for about five minutes until the charge current decreases to the current detector reset level as the battery approaches full charge. 33. Where is the battery located? In the right wing box. 34. How is the battery cooled? It is air cooled. 35. What does the Bat Bus switch on the left subpanel do? The EMER OFF disconnects the Battery from the Battery Bus. 36. What equipment is located on the Battery Bus? The following equipment is typically installed on the Battery Bus: Avionics, Battery Switch/Relay, Ground Comm, Dual Fed Bus. 37. What will trigger the yellow Battery change annunciator light? A charge into the battery of more than 7 amperes for 6 or more seconds. Normal charge rate is 1-4 amps. 38. What should be done if the aircraft battery is less than 20 volts? If the battery does not indicate at least 20 volts, it must be charged or replaced before connecting the GPU to the airplane. EXTERNAL POWER 39. Where is the external power receptacle located? The external power receptacle is located underneath the right wing, outboard of the engine nacelle. 40. Does the ground power unit need to be operating to illuminate the external power annunciator light? No.

20 King Air The Oral Exam Guide What bus is powered by external power? External power is routed through the external power relay to the center bus. 42. What does a flashing Ext Pwr light mean? External power is plugged in but not producing 28 volts. 43. What does a steady EXT PWR light mean? External power is on, sufficient, and applied. 44. When will GPU power be locked out? If voltage exceeds 31v AVIONICS POWER DISTRIBUTION 45. How does the avionics power switch work? When the avionics master switch is placed in the ON position, voltage is removed from each coil and the contacts are closed to supply power to the avionics power circuit breakers. 46. Why would you pull the Avionics Master CB? To bypass the Avionics Master Switch and provide avionics power if that switch has failed.

21 King Air The Oral Exam Guide 21 EXTERIOR ANTI-COLLISION LIGHTS Chapter 3 LIGHTING 1. What is the standard lighting installation? The standard anti-collision light installation consists of an upper anti-collision light mounted in the upper empennage and a lower anti-collision light mounted on the bottom of the fuselage. 2. What lights are installed on the wingtips? The wing tips incorporate the navigation, recognition and strobe light systems. RECOGNITION LIGHTS 3. Where are the recognition lights? The optional recognition lights are installed in each wing tip just forward and inboard of the strobe lights. The lights are focused to the front and outboard of the airplane. TAIL FLOODLIGHTS 4. What is the purpose of the tail floodlights? The optional tail floodlights are mounted on the underside of the horizontal stabilizer and illuminate the identification on the vertical stabilizer. LANDING AND TAXI LIGHTS 5. Where are the taxi and landing lights located? Two landing lights and one taxi light are mounted on the nose landing gear. 6. Do the taxi and landing lights extinguish when the landing gear is retracted? No, the lights remain illuminated.

22 King Air The Oral Exam Guide 22 NAVIGATION LIGHTS 7. How many navigation lights are installed? The standard navigation light installation consists of two red lights installed in the left wing tip, two green lights installed in the right wing tip, and a white light installed in the tail. EMERGENCY LIGHTING 8. What powers the emergency exit light? Emergency door exit signs are manufactured to be self-illuminating by use of a phosphor coated tube and tritium gas. No exposure to daylight is necessary. READING LIGHTS 9. What controls the reading lights? Each of the eight reading lights are controlled by an individual light switch located in the sidewall armrest. ENTRY AND LOADING LIGHTS 10. What is the power source for the entry lights? The entry lights are powered from the hot battery bus or from the triple fed bus. 11. How are the cabin door observer lights controlled? Two cabin door observer lights are controlled by a single push-on, push-off switch. 12. When will the entry light illuminate? When the cabin door is open, power is provided to the exterior entry light to illuminate the ground in front of the cabin door. 13. How do you illuminate the aircraft steps? When the cabin door is open and the threshold switch is closed, power is provided to the threshold light, the three step lights, and the two spar light tubes. None of these lights will illuminate when the cabin door is locked.

23 King Air The Oral Exam Guide How do you illuminate the door handle position light? A momentary-push switch is provided adjacent to the cabin door to illuminate the handleposition observer light. 15. What indication will the pilot see if the cabin door is not locked? When any of the cabin door switches are not closed, a red DOOR UNLOCKED signal is displayed on the warning annunciator panel when either external power or generator power is applied to the airplane.

24 King Air The Oral Exam Guide 24 INTERIOR VESTIBULE, AFT COMPARTMENT LIGHTS AND EXIT SIGNS 16. What controls the aft baggage light? The aft baggage compartment light switch. 17. What is the power source of the aft baggage light? The ENTRY LIGHTS are fed by the hot battery bus for operation of the aft baggage compartment lights when the triple fed bus is not powered. 18. Where are the emergency exit signs located? The two emergency exit signs in this airplane are located in the center aisle headliner adjacent to the cabin door and emergency exit hatches. During normal operation they are powered by the airplane electrical system. During emergency power-off conditions they are self-activating and internally powered by four C -size dry batteries located in each unit. 19. How are the emergency exit lights tested? A three-position rocker switch, labeled ON-TEST, OFF-RESET, allows for testing of each unit before flight and during maintenance by momentarily selecting the ON-TEST position. 20. When will the emergency exit lights illuminate automatically? In the center position, an internal inertia switch will illuminate the light if 1.5 g s are sustained for more than 1/30th of a second. ANNUNCIATOR LIGHTS 21. Describe the annunciator panels. The annunciator lights include a warning annunciator panel (with red readout) centrally located in the glareshield, and a caution/advisory/status annunciator panel (caution-yellow, advisory-green, statuswhite) located below the center of the instrument panel. INSTRUMENT INDIRECT LIGHTS 22. How many indirect lights are mounted below the glareshield? The instrument indirect lights consist of ten lamps mounted under the glareshield to illuminate the instrument panel. 23. How do you control the indirect panel lights? The lights can be dimmed through the INSTR INDIRECT potentiometer located on the overhead control panel.

25 King Air The Oral Exam Guide How many indirect panel lights are controlled by the instrument emergency light switch? Four indirect lights are controlled by the switch. 25. What lights are controlled by the Emergency Instrument Light switch? The lights under the glare shield.

26 King Air The Oral Exam Guide 26 Chapter 4 MASTER WARNING SYSTEM 1. What is the purpose of the annunciator system? A central annunciator system is installed in the airplane to alert the crew of any malfunction of critical airplane systems. 2. Describe the annunciator system. The annunciator system consists of two master warning and two master caution light switches in the glareshield, a warning annunciator panel in the center of the glareshield and a caution/advisory/status (CAS) annunciator panel on the pedestal below the main instrument panel. 3. What does a red annunciator light indicate? The red warning annunciators indicate a hazard which requires immediate crew alerting and corrective action. 4. What does an amber annunciator light indicate? The amber caution annunciators indicate a malfunction which requires immediate attention, but not necessarily immediate corrective action. 5. What does a white annunciator light indicate? The white status annunciators indicate a normal condition and do not require immediate crew alerting or action. 6. What does a green annunciator light indicate? The green advisory annunciators confirm that an operation initiated or selected by the flight crew is occurring properly and does not require immediate crew alerting or any further action. 7. When will the master warning or master caution light illuminate? Anytime a warning or caution annunciator is illuminated, the master warning or master caution lights will also illuminate. 8. How do you extinguish a master warning light or master caution light? The master warning or master caution lights will flash until the legend face on either light (pilot or copilot) is pressed, at which time the flashing lights are extinguished. The annunciator will remain illuminated until the fault signal is removed from the annunciator panel and the master warning or caution lights will not flash until another annunciator fault signal is applied to the system.

27 King Air The Oral Exam Guide What does the PRESS-TO-TEST light do? A PRESS-TO-TEST switch located on the copilot s side of the warning annunciator panel is used to test illumination of the annunciators and master warning and caution lights. When the test switch is pressed, all annunciators in both panels, and all four master warning and caution lights will illuminate. 10. How are the annunciator panel lights dimmed? Dimming of the annunciator panels is automatically controlled through the ambient light sensor circuit.

28 King Air The Oral Exam Guide 28 Chapter 5 FUEL SYSTEM 1. What is the typical fuel burn for planning purposes? 120 gph is the typical fuel burn. 2. How does fuel get from the aux tank to the nacelle tank? Fuel is moved from the aux tank to the nacelle tank by a jet pump. 3. What does the spring loaded switch on the fuel panel do? It checks the quantity of fuel in the main and aux tanks. 4. Explain the fuel flow from wing tank to engine. From the Wing to Nacelle to Elec Standby Boost Pump to FW shutoff to Eng Boost Pump to Filter to Heater to Hi Press Pump to FCU. 5. What happens when the high pressure engine driven fuel pump fails? The engine will immediately fail. 6. What are the procedures for operating with FUEL PRESS light on? If both boost pumps fail, the high pressure pump will suction feed but operation is restricted to 10 hours before the high pressure pump must be overhauled or replaced. 7. When will RED Fuel Pressure light on the annunciator panel illuminate? The RED light indicates 9-11 PSI fuel pressure and decreasing. 8. When will the NO FUEL XFR light illuminate? It will illuminate if less than 6 psi of fuel pressure is sensed at the Motive Flow Valve unless the aux tank is empty. There is an 11 second delay in this warning circuit. 9. During crossfeed, what position should the standby pumps be in? Both pumps should be off. 10. What happens when you select crossfeed on the Fuel panel? The auto fuel transfer module energizes the Standby Pump on the feeding side. 11. What is the critical fuel temperature range? While the critical fuel temperature range is from -18 C to -19 C, which produces severe system icing, water droplets can freeze at any temperature below 0 C.

29 King Air The Oral Exam Guide What is one of the dangers of water in jet fuel? Water in jet fuel creates an environment favorable to the growth of microbiological sludge in the settlement areas of the fuel cells. Water in jet fuel can also freeze. 13. What do microbes in the fuel cause? Contaminants in the fuel can cause corrosion of metal parts in the fuel system as well as clogging of the fuel filters. 14. How should the airplane be fueled? Do not fill auxiliary tanks unless main tanks are full. 15. When should you drain fuel sumps after fuel? Allow a three-hour settle period whenever possible, then drain a small amount of fuel into a container from each drain point. 16. Is frost on the bottom of the fuel tank a hazard? Frost that forms on the wing fuel tank bottom skin is not a hazard and does not need to be removed prior to flight. 17. What are the useable fuel quantities? Useable fuel in the main tank is 2546 pounds. Useable fuel in the auxiliary tank is 1065 pounds. The maximum useable fuel quantity is 3611 pounds.

30 King Air The Oral Exam Guide 30 Chapter 6 POWERPLANT 1. Where is the oil tank located? Between the engine air intake and the accessory case. 2. What is the oil capacity? 14 U.S. quarts or 3.5 U.S. gallons. 3. What engines are installed on the King Air 350? Two Pratt & Whitney PT6A-60A turboprop engines. 4. What is P3 air used for? P3 air is used for cockpit side window defogging; inflating the door seal; gear hydraulic precharge; hobbs meter; de-ice distributor; ejector for vacuum for pressurization controller, gyro instruments and to deflate boots. 5. What three lever sets control the engine? There are three sets of controls: the power levers, propeller levers, and condition levers. 6. What do the power levers do? The power levers provide control of engine power from idle through takeoff power by operation of the gas generator (N1) governor in the fuel control unit. 7. Name the three positions of the condition levers. FUEL CUTOFF, LOW IDLE and HIGH IDLE. 8. What N1 is minimum for low idle? Idle speed is 62% N1 at low idle. 9. What N1 is minimum for high idle? Idle speed is 70% N1 at high idle. 10. Why would you set the condition levers to high idle when landing on a short field? Condition levers, when set at HIGH IDLE, keep the engines operating at 70% N1 (minimum) for maximum reversing performance.

31 King Air The Oral Exam Guide Does illumination of the chip detector require a mandatory shut down of the engine? A magnetic chip detector is installed in the bottom of each engine nose gearbox. This detector will activate an amber annunciator, L CHIP DETECT or R CHIP DETECT, to alert the pilot of possible metal contamination in the engine oil supply. Illumination of a CHIP DETECT annunciator is not in itself cause for an engine to be shut down. After illumination of a CHIP DETECT annunciator, cause of the malfunction should be determined and corrected prior to the next flight. 12. Explain the ignition and starter switch. Each engine is started by a three-position switch located on the pilot s left subpanel, placarded IGNITION AND ENGINE START LEFT RIGHT ON OFF STARTER ONLY. Moving the switch upward to the ON position activates both the starter and ignition, and the appropriate IGNITION ON annunciator will illuminate. The STARTER ONLY position is used to motor the engine without ignition. 13. The engine operates on what principle? The PT6A-60A is a reverse-airflow engine. 14. What is the purpose of the Auto Ignition System? The auto ignition system provides automatic ignition to prevent engine loss due to combustion failure. This system is provided to ensure ignition during turbulence and penetration of icing or precipitation conditions. 15. What do the colors on the engine instruments signify? Engine instruments incorporate green, yellow and red operating ranges to give the pilot a visual indication of engine parameters as they change. 16. Where is ITT measured? At the T5 probe. 17. The PT6A-60A has how many fuel nozzles? It has 14 fuel nozzles in 2 sets: at start, flow divider directs fuel to portion of nozzles; at 35-40%, fuel pressure sufficient to feed all The PT6A-60A has how many igniters? 2 but only needs 1 to start. 19. At what N1 does the flow divider send fuel to all 14 nozzles? 35-40%. 20. Explain the compressor bleed valve. Ports P2.5 stage air at low rpm to relive back pressure and prevent compressor stalls. Closes at approximately 90% N1.

32 King Air The Oral Exam Guide What happens if the compressor bleed valve sticks during acceleration? Compressor stalls. 22. What happens if the compressor bleed valve sticks open during acceleration? High ITT and low torque. 23. When does auto ignition energize? When armed, energizes when torque is below 17%. 24. How is the primary oil cooler controlled? Thermo. 25. What is the oil capacity? 3.5+gal. 26. What is the maximum consumption? 1 qt. per 10 hours. 27. What is the typical oil level when hot? 1 qt. low. 28. What is the typical oil level when cold? 2 qt. low. 29. When is the best time to check oil? Shortly after shutdown, within 15 minutes. 30. Explain the fuel control unit: Works as governor to supply fuel required to maintain selected engine speed. Eng Boost pump provides head pressure for High Speed pump to prevent cavitation. Pump Unloading Valve responds to condition lever to load/unload fuel pressure. 31. How many governors are involved in controlling prop RPM? There are 3 governors: the primary governor, the overspeed governor, and the fuel topping governor. 32. What does the low pitch stop do? Prevents prop from going too flat and affecting aircraft control. 33. When will the auto feather system arm? When both power levers are above 88% N1; both Torque above 17%; torque manifold oil press below value for 17% torque, AND; torque continues to drop below 10%; prop feathers.

33 King Air The Oral Exam Guide What is the auto feather test procedure? Power levers to 22% torque; autofeather switch: test; both AUTO FEATHER ARM lights; retard power levers one at a time; at 17% torque, ARM light on good side goes out; at 10% torque, low prop cycles in and out of feather, light blinks; after both sides, both power levers to idle and check neither feathers; ARM system for takeoff. 35. What is the prop syncs max authority? 20 rpm. 36. What do the propeller levers do? Each propeller lever adjusts the propeller governor, which results in an increase or decrease of propeller rpm. 37. What does the propeller ground fine do? The propeller ground fine operation is used to provide optimum deceleration on the ground during landing by taking advantage of the maximum available propeller drag. 38. When can the propeller synchrophaser be turned on? The propeller synchrophaser system is an electronic system certified for all operations including takeoff and landing. 39. How do you operate the propeller synchrophaser? Before engaging the system, manually set the RPM of each engine to within 10 RPM of each other. 40. How is the propeller synchrophaser set? The system increases the RPM of the slower propeller and simultaneously reduces the RPM of the faster propeller. 41. What is the procedure to adjust propeller RPM with the propeller synchrophaser on? To change RPM with the system ON, adjust both propeller controls by the same amount. 42. What is the purpose of the starter/generator? The engine is equipped with a starter/generator which serves as a starter during engine cranking and as a generator after the engine is started. 43. What should the GPU be set to? The GPU should have a capacity of 1,000 amperes output and should be adjusted to produce ±.25 volts. 44. What are some considerations when using a GPU? A GPU should not be used unless the airplane battery has an indicated charge of at least 20 volts, and the battery should be ON to absorb transients present in some GPUs.

34 King Air The Oral Exam Guide What are the starter limits? The starter has operating limitations of 30 seconds on, 5 minutes off, 30 seconds on, 5 minutes off, 30 seconds on, the 30 minutes off. 46. Why should the propellers be restrained at tiedown? Unrestrained propellers are apt to windmill. Prolonged windmilling at zero oil pressures can result in bearing damage.

35 King Air The Oral Exam Guide 35 Chapter 7 FIRE PROTECTION 1. Where are the fire extinguisher bottles located? In each wheel well. 2. How many fire extinguisher spray tubes are in each engine? There are 8 spray tubes in each engine. 3. Explain the fire engine test. DET checks the continuity of the detection loop; EXT checks the continuity of wiring to the squib and cartridge circuit.

36 King Air The Oral Exam Guide 36 Chapter 8 PNEUMATICS/VACUUM 1. What is the bleed air flow rate? The bleed air at a maximum flow rate of 1. To 1-1/2 lb/min at psi pressure is obtained from both engines and flows through pneumatic lines to a common tee located in the fuselage. 2. What prevents reverse flow of bleed air during single engine operations? Check valves are installed to prevent reverse flow during single engine operation. 3. What pressure is the bleed air regulated to? All bleed air passes through an 18 psi regulator which incorporates a relief valve set to operate at 21 psi in case of regulator failure. This regulated bleed air is used to supply pneumatic pressure to the surface deicers, door seal, bleed air failure warning system and the cabin window defrost system, and to provide forcing flow and pressure for the vacuum ejector. 4. What is the temperature of the bleed air? Bleed air is extracted from the third stage of the engine compressor at a maximum temperature of 650 F and is cooled to approximately 70 above ambient temperature at the tee in the fuselage due to heat transfer in the pneumatic plumbing. 5. How is vacuum air obtained? Vacuum is obtained from the bleed-air-driven vacuum ejector. 6. What is the range of vacuum available? The ejector is capable of supplying vacuum ranging from 15 inches of Hg at sea level to 6 inches of Hg at 31,000 feet. 7. At what vacuum is the pressurization control system regulated? The ejector supplies vacuum for the pressurization control system at a regulated 4.3 to 5.9 inches of Hg through a regulator valve located in the nose compartment.

37 King Air The Oral Exam Guide 37 Chapter 9 ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION SURFACE DEICER INDICATING SYSTEM 1. What does the wing deice light remaining illuminated mean? If both switches do not actuate to the normally closed position the WING DEICE annunciator light will remain illuminated. This indicates that the end of the deice cycle has not been reached and the deice boots have not pulled down properly, which may impair ice shedding at the next deicing attempt. 2. When will the tail deice light illuminate? When the pressure switch actuates. The horizontal stabilizer pressure switch will actuate when the deice system pressure exceeds 14.5 ±.5 psig at the tee to each deice boot. 3. What is minimum air speed in icing conditions? 140 kias. 4. What is the minimum temperature for using deice boots? -40 C. 5. Where does the vacuum system obtain pressure for the deice and vacuum systems? The deicer and vacuum system is operated with pressure obtained by bleeding air from the engine compressors. 6. What prevents loss of pressurization during one engine operation? To assure operation of the system should one engine fail, a check valve is incorporated into the bleed air line from each engine to prevent the escape of air pressure into the chamber of the inoperative compressor. 7. How are the deicing boots deflated? The bleed air from the engine is routed through an ejector that employs a venturi effect to produce vacuum for deflation of the deicer boots. 8. How is the deice system activated? By a three-way toggle switch on the pilot s subpanel. This switch is spring-loaded to return to the OFF position from either the MANUAL or the SINGLE position.

38 King Air The Oral Exam Guide What does the single position of the deice switch do? When the switch is pushed to the SINGLE position, one complete cycle of deicer operation automatically follows as the distributor valve opens to inflate the deicer boots. After an inflation period of approximately 6 seconds for the wings and 4 seconds for the horizontal stabilizer, a timer relay switches the distributor valve to the OFF or VACUUM position for deflation of the deicer boots. 10. What does the manual position of the deice switch do? When the switch is pushed to the MANUAL position, all the boots will inflate and will continue to hold in the inflated position as long as the switch is held in position. Upon release of the switch, the distributor valve returns to the OFF position and the deicer boots remain deflated until the switch is actuated again. AIR INTAKE ANTI-ICE LIP 11. How is the engine inlet lip heated? The lip around each engine air inlet is heated by hot exhaust gases to prevent the formation of ice during inclement weather. A scoop in the LH exhaust stack on each engine diverts a portion of the hot exhaust gases downward through a flex hose into the hollow lip encircling each engine air inlet. 12. Where are the gases from the inlet exhausted? The gases are exhausted out of the opposite exhaust stack. INERTIAL SEPARATION ANTI-ICE SYSTEM 13. Explain the components of the inertial separation anti-ice system. An inertial separation system, consisting of two electrically actuated movable vanes, is built into each engine air inlet to prevent moisture particles from entering the engine inlet plenum during freezing conditions. When icing conditions are encountered, the forward ice vane is lowered into the inlet airstream and the aft ice vane is retracted. 14. Explain the principle of operation of the ice vanes. Repositioning the vanes will cause the velocity of incoming air to increase so that heavy ice laden air will be directed overboard through the lower aft cowling, while lighter incoming air will turn abruptly to enter the engine plenum around the trailing edge of the extended forward vane and the curved fixed vane. 15. How are the ice vanes normally driven into position? The system is normally driven by the primary motor.

39 King Air The Oral Exam Guide What is the purpose of the secondary motor? In the event the primary motor malfunctions, system power is provided through selection of the secondary motor. 17. How do you know the ice vanes have extended? When the forward vanes are fully extended, a position sense switch on each vane linkage will cause the L ENG ANTI-ICE and R ENG ANTI-ICE advisory (green) light in the caution/advisory annunciator panel to illuminate. 18. How do you know the ice vanes have not fully extended? If full extension of the vanes is not attained, the L ENG ICE FAIL and/or R ENG ICE FAIL caution (yellow) light in the annunciator panel will illuminate, signaling a fault in the primary motor of the designated actuator. 19. When should the inertial separators be deployed? When flying in visible moisture and the temperature is +5 C or below. 20. What happens when the inertial separators deploy? There is a decrease in torque and an increase in ITT. 21. When will ENG ICE FAIL light illuminate? It will illuminate if there is a disagreement between ice vane positions. BRAKE DEICE SYSTEM 22. Where does the heated air for the brake deice come from? Heated air for the brake deice system is supplied by the pneumatic bleed air system. 23. How is the brake deice bleed air distributed? Bleed air is distributed through orifices located on the circumference of both rings of each distributor manifold. 24. How often should the brake deice system be tested? Once a day. WINDSHIELD ANTI-ICE 25. How are the windshields protected against ice formation? The pilot s and copilot s windshields are protected against icing by dual level heating elements embedded in the windshield.

40 King Air The Oral Exam Guide How are the windshield heaters controlled? Operation of the windshield heaters is controlled by two toggle switches placarded WSHLD ANTI-ICE, NORMAL-OFF-HI, PILOT-COPILOT located on the pilot s inboard subpanel. 27. What is the windshield temperature during heater operation? Between 90 F and 110 F. 28. What is the maximum speed that windshield heat will remain effective? The maximum speed is 226 knots. WINDSHIELD WIPERS 29. Does the airplane have windshield wipers? Yes, for both the pilot and copilot. WINDOW DEFOG SYSTEM 30. How does the window defog system operate? Cabin window and cockpit side window defog is provided through the use of engine bleed air anytime one or both engines are running. PROPELLER ELECTRIC DEICERS 31. Explain the propeller deice operation. Deicing is accomplished by raising the deicer boot surface temperature sufficiently to reduce the bond between ice and boot, allowing centrifugal force and scavenging airflow to sling ice from the propeller; When the AUTO switch is activated, power to the deicer boots is cycled in 90- second phases; The first 90-second phase heats all deicer boots on the RH propeller; The second phase heats all the deicer boots on the LH propeller. 32. What does the manual switch do? A manual propeller deicer system is provided as a backup to the automatic system. When the MANUAL switch is activated, power is applied to all heating elements on both props. 33. How do you operate the manual switch? The manual override switch is of the momentary type, and must be held in place until the ice has been dislodged from the propeller surface.

41 King Air The Oral Exam Guide Will the propeller ammeter indicate a load in manual operation? Although the propeller ammeter will not indicate any load in the manual mode, the load meters will indicate approximately a.05% increase in load when the manual propeller deicer system is in operation.