FINAL EXAM Name 1. Total usable fuel is 177 gallons 2. Proper fuel(s) specification for the T-28 is (are): XX (a) 100/130 alternate 100LL (b) 115/145 and 100/130 alternate (c) 115/145 and 100/130 emergency (d) 115/145 and 100/130 3. Name the items on the control shift in the unmodified aircraft (non ASC-36). _Speed brake, cowl, flaps, landing lights, DC power switch, inverter selector switch, starter, oil dilute, ext master, nav lights, rotating beacons - top and bottom. 4. Name the systems on the Monitor bus. Large inverter 750va., heater 5. Name the items on the Battery bus. _Service lights, control shift 1
6. In the event of a generator failure, how can the secondary bus be repowered? _Select the battery only position of the DC power switch, or by lowering the landing gear 7. The DC power switch and the inverter selector swiitch are on the control shift in the aircraft having ASC-36. (a) True XX (b) False 8. What are the power sources for the Monitor bus? Generator or ground power 9. What is the power source for the small inverter on aircraft having ASC-36? Primary bus 10. Name four indications that the oil shutoff valve has opened prior to start. Red liight off Green light on Sound of motor operating Able to engage - starter 11. What is the power source for the small inverter on the unmodified aircraft? Primary bus 2
12. What is the switch and light configuration for the Clean Kit just prior to starting and during all engine operation? No red lights, Green light on All switches down or Aft and Guards down 13. The oil shut off valve light is a switch position or valve position light? Valve position 14. Best power-off glide speed to obtain maximum distance with gear and flaps retracted is: (a) 100 knots (b) 110 knots (c) 120 knots XX (d) 130 knots 15. What is the maximum allowable carburetor air temperature? 151 C. For each 61 degrees above the desired maximum, it is necessary to reduce MAP 1 inches. 16. Maximum continuous operating rpm is: (a) 2700 XX (b) 2500 (c) 2780 (d) 2650 3
17. The cockpit air lever is normally operated in the: XX (a) OPEN position (b) EMERGENCY OFF position (c) CLOSED position 18. Loss of propeller control and subsequent stabilization between 2000 and 2200 rpm indicates: (a) Prop governor failure XX (b) Prop governor linkage failure (c) Prop governor counterweight failure (d) An oil leak in the propeller dome. 19. You are about to run off the end of a hard surface runway into soft mud at 30 kias. NATOPS recommends: (a) Leave gear down XX (b) Retract landing gear 20. With hydraulic pump failure, which of the hydraulically operated systems can still be used? ALL 21. In an engine failure emergency, the PROP lever will be placed in FULL INCREASE rpm position for increased glide range. (a) True XX (b) False 22. The best power off glide speed to obtain maximum glide distance is 130 knots. 4
23. What is the power source for the large 750va inverter on the unmodified aircraft? Monitor bus 24. The highest drag item you are able to configure is Landing gear. 25. In the event of a generator failure in flight, can the monitor bus be powered? No 26. When starting the engine utilizing an APU, the DC POWER switch should be in the: (a) BAT. & GEN. position XX (b) OFF position (c) BAT. ONLY position (d) APU position 27. Which of the following would be lost in the event of a-c power failure: (a) Turn-and-bank indicator (b) Tachometer XX (c) Attitude gyro (d) Cylinder head temperature 28. Inverted flight in the T-28: (a) Is not permitted XX (b) Is permitted for 10 seconds (c) Is permitted for 20 seconds 5
(d) Is permitted for 30 seconds 29. What does the AC instrument Power Failure light indicate? Attitude indicator not powered and/or AC systek failure 30. Because of additional stresses imposed on the T-28, maximum permissible acceleration in a rolling pullout is: (a) Plus 6 g's (b) One-half the maximum permissible acceleration for a normal pullout XX (c) Two-thirds the maximum permissible acceleration for a normal pullout (d) Three g's less than normal for a given airspeed and altitude 31. What is the purpose of the Fuel Boost Pump Test Switch? To test the operation of the engine driven boost pump 32. What do you look for when you activate the Fuel Boost Pump Test Switch? Engine continues to run, fuel pressure 21-25 psi, decrease in load meter, possible slight fluctuation in fuel pressure 33. The electric boost pump normal pressure is 19-24 psi and is a function of Voltage. 34. Useful fuel capacity is 177 gallons. 35. On engine start, what is an indication that the primer is working? 6
Slight fluctuation in fuel pressure when the primer is activated 36. The fuel low level light illuminates with approximately 200 # of fuel remaining which gives you approximately 30-45 minutes of flying time at normal power. 37. In the event of carburetor failure, the engine may be made to run by use of the primer. XX (a) True (b) False 38. Flap extension speed is 140 kias. 39. The minimum oil pressure for flight is 65 psi. 40. Maximum manifold pressure is 52.5 in. 41. What is the minimum battery voltage for start? 22 volts 42. What is the minimum cylinder head temperature for engine runup? 150 Deg. C.. 43. The VNE for the T-28 is 340 knots. 7
44. What occurs in the T-28 DC el;ectrical system when the voltage goes below 18 VDC while the aircraft is in flight? Lose secondary bus altogether 45. How many fuel drain points are there on a T-28? (a) 1 XX (b) 5 (c) 3 (d) 4 46. Minimum oil quantity for flight is 8 gallons. 47. What is the minimum oil temperature for engine runup? 50 Deg. C 48. The tachometer shows engine RPM. (a) True XX (b) False 49. If there is a hydraulic fluid leak in the wheel brake system, will you have brakes? No. Will you lose the remainder of the hydraulic fluid in the system? Yes 50. If you lose hydraulic fluid, can you extend the landing gear? Yes. Can you raise the gear? No 8
51. In the event of the loss of hydraulic fluid, can the speed brake be deployed? No. Can the speedbrake be retracted? Yes, to the trail position 52. If the landing gear handle is difficult to raise, the Reid latch is the probable cause. (a) True XX (b) False 53. What is the function of the landing gear safety solenoid, and what effect does it have if it fails? To prevent the inadvertent raising of the landing gear handle on the ground. The gear handle will be difficult to move to the up position 54. During the blower shift check during the engine run-up, what is the indication that the blower has down-shifted to low blower? Decrease in manifold pressure of approximately 2". 55. How do you determine field barometric pressure? Do you need a current altimeter setting or can you set your altimeter to 29.92"? Read the MAP gage prior to engine start. No, No 56. Name the indications that the landing gear is down and locked. Gear indicators in the front and rear cockpit. Red light in the gearhandle out with the gear handle down. No gear horn. Gear position lights on the gear with the external master on 57. Name the power source for the following instruments. MAP Direct reading Tach Self generating Oil Pressure Direct reading 9
Fuel Pressure Direct reading Attitude Indicator Inverter Turn and Bank Indicator 28 volt DC primary bus Airspeed Indicator Pitot static system CHT 28 volt DC Primary bus Oil Temp 28 volt DC Primary bus CAT 28 volt DC Primary bus Altimeter Static system ID-250 Heading Indicator Inverter 10